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Sauron [17]
3 years ago
7

Please help with a step by step method ​

Physics
1 answer:
Elan Coil [88]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Explanation:

This is a First Law of thermodynamics problem. We have to remember that the total energy available to a system is constant throughout the whole problem and that energy cannot be created or destroyed. So we need to find the total energy available right at the start. Well it just so happens that we are told that the total energy is 1000J and that it is all potential energy when the sphere is at rest and is 25 m off the ground. If the object isn't moving, all the energy is potential until it starts moving and the energy begins to convert from potential to kinetic a little bit at a time. The thing that we don't know is the mass of the shpere. Begin with the fact that the PE = 1000 (I'm going to se 2 sig fig's since there's only 1 in 1000). If

PE = 1000 and PE = mgh, then

1000 = m(9.8)(25) so

m = 4.1 kg

We also need the height at which this sphere has a PE of 600. Again, if

PE = 600 and PE = mgh, then

600 = (4.1)(9.8)h so

h = 15 Filling in the total energy equation now, using the fact that the total energy available to the system is 1000J:

TE = PE + KE and

1000 = (4.1)(9.8)(15) + \frac{1}{2}(4.1)v^2 and we are looking for v.

1000 = 6.0 × 10² + 2.1v² so

v=\sqrt{\frac{1000-6.0*10^2}{2.1} } and

v=\sqrt{\frac{4.0*10^2}{2.1} } gives us

v = 14 m/s

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A.
Aliun [14]

Answer:

the correct answer is c, they will accelerate away from each other at different speeds. the 80kg will go faster due to less mass

6 0
3 years ago
Please help. I don’t understand this
skad [1K]

The short answer is that the displacement is equal tothe area under the curve in the velocity-time graph. The region under the curve in the first 4.0 s is a triangle with height 10.0 m/s and length 4.0 s, so its area - and hence the displacement - is

1/2 • (10.0 m/s) • (4.0 s) = 20.00 m

Another way to derive this: since velocity is linear over the first 4.0 s, that means acceleration is constant. Recall that average velocity is defined as

<em>v</em> (ave) = ∆<em>x</em> / ∆<em>t</em>

and under constant acceleration,

<em>v</em> (ave) = (<em>v</em> (final) + <em>v</em> (initial)) / 2

According to the plot, with ∆<em>t</em> = 4.0 s, we have <em>v</em> (initial) = 0 and <em>v</em> (final) = 10.0 m/s, so

∆<em>x</em> / (4.0 s) = (10.0 m/s) / 2

∆<em>x</em> = ((4.0 s) • (10.0 m/s)) / 2

∆<em>x</em> = 20.00 m

5 0
2 years ago
Can anyone help me with these questions? TIA!<br> (Don’t actually answer please! :) )
nataly862011 [7]
<h2>Hey There!</h2><h2>_____________________________________</h2><h2>Question 7: </h2>

 \huge\text{Graphs:}

The graph of  

• The I-V for Ohmic Metal wire conductor at constant temperature  always shows a straight line between the Current(I) plotted at Y axis and Voltage(V) plotted at X axis. Picture 1

• The I-V graph for Diode shows that first the current is zero but as we increase the potential difference(voltage), it results in the increase in the current. Picture 2

<h2>_____________________________________ </h2><h2>Question 8: </h2>

\Large\textbf{Diode:}  

A diode is a device that allows current to flow in only one direction.

\Large\textbf{Forward and Reverse Biasing:}  

Forward Bias, When a diode is forward bias (a voltage in the "forward" direction) then the P-side of the diode is attached to the positive terminal and N-side is fixed to the negative side of the battery which is connected, current flows freely through the device. The forward bias decreases the thickness of potential barrier(The potential barrier barrier in which the charge requires additional force for crossing the region)

Reverse Bias, When a diode is Reverse bias(a voltage in the "backward direction) then the P-side of the diode is connected to the negative terminal and N-side is connected to the positive terminal of the battery which is connected. The reverse bias increases the thickness of the potential barrier resulting in the flow of no current.

 \Large\textbf{Answer to the Question "Resistance"}

The Forward bias decreases the resistance of the diode whereas the reversed bias increases the resistance of the diode. As in forward biasing the current is easily flowing through the circuit whereas reverse bias does not allow the current to flow through it.

<h2>_____________________________________ </h2><h2>Best Regards, </h2><h2>'Borz' </h2>

8 0
3 years ago
In what way are all sounds alike?
Anna35 [415]

Answer:

D. all sounds are caused by vibrations

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
In the aftermath of an intense earthquake, the earth as a whole "rings" with a period of 54 minutes.
lawyer [7]

The frequency of the oscillation in hertz is calculated to be 0.00031 Hz.

The frequency of a wave is defined as the number of cycles completed per second while the period refers to the time taken to complete a cycle. The frequency is the inverse of period.

So;

Period(T) = 54 minutes or 3240 seconds

Frequency (f) = T-1 = 1/T = 1/3240 seconds = 0.00031 Hz

Learn more: brainly.com/question/14588679

6 0
2 years ago
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