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Alik [6]
2 years ago
13

PLEASE HELP THANKS, Scale factoring

Mathematics
1 answer:
Radda [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

17.5 or 35

Step-by-step explanation:

because 350/10=35

350/12=17.5

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In ​ kite PQRS ​, TQ=3 cm and TP=4 cm. What is SP ? Enter your answer in the box.
yawa3891 [41]

Answer:

Kite is a quadrilateral in which two disjoint pairs of consecutive sides are congruent

Given: In kite PQRS

where PR and SQ are the diagonals of Kite respectively as shown in the figure given below.

Given: TQ = 3 cm and TP = 4 cm

Let PR is the main diagonal and SQ is the cross diagonal of kite PQRS as shown in figure,  also let T is the intersection point of PQRS.

By Property of Kite, diagonal SQ bisects PR at perpendicular angle i.e, 90 degree.

i,e

Then, in right angle ΔQTP

PQ = \sqrt{TQ^2+TP^2}   [Using Pythagoras theorem]

Substitute the given values of TQ and TP we have;

PQ = \sqrt{3^2+4^2} =\sqrt{9+16} =\sqrt{25} = 5 cm

Also, PQ = SP                    [by definition of kite]

therefore, the side SP = 5 cm.

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The snack bar at the park sells an average of 1.2×10^5 drinks per year and it sells an average of 4.0×10^4 hot dogs per year.
lozanna [386]

Answer:

8.0 × 10⁴

Step-by-step explanation:

1.2 × 10⁵ - 4.0 × 10⁴

1.2 × 10⁵ = 120000

4.0 × 10⁴ = 40000

120000 - 40000 = 80,000

8.0000 (4 spaces)

8.0 × 10⁴

6 0
3 years ago
Solve for X (6x+14)° (7x-5)°
GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

x = 19

Step-by-step explanation:

see pic

3 0
2 years ago
A family has two cars. During one particular week, the first car consumed 25 gallons of gas and the second consumed 40 gallons o
ExtremeBDS [4]

Answer:

Pay attention in class and u would understand,✌️

8 0
3 years ago
Using a standard deck of playing cards, what is the probability of drawing a four, replacing the card, and then drawing a club?
V125BC [204]

Answer:

D. 1/52

Step-by-step explanation:

There are four 4s in a deck of 52 cards, so there is a 4/52 chance of drawing a four on the first try.

Once you replace the card in the deck, the simulation starts over, meaning the events are independent and you are once again drawing from 52 possible cards.

Now, when you draw the club, the chance of this is 13/52 because there are 13 clubs in a deck.

Because events are independent, multiply the probabilities to determine the chance that both events occur.

\frac{4}{52} * \frac{13}{52}   =  1/52

7 0
3 years ago
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