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Alecsey [184]
3 years ago
8

The formula of the area of a square is

Mathematics
2 answers:
Vikki [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A=lw

mr Goodwill [35]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A = bh

Step-by-step explanation:

you multiply the base length by the height length.

If my answer is incorrect, pls correct me!

If you like my answer and explanation, mark me as brainliest!

-Chetan K

You might be interested in
A supermarket has two customers waiting to pay for their purchases at counter I and one customer waiting to pay at counter II. L
Pachacha [2.7K]

Answer:

b. 0.864

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's start defining the random variables.

Y1 : ''Number of customers who spend more than $50 on groceries at counter 1''

Y2 : ''Number of customers who spend more than $50 on groceries at counter 2''

If X is a binomial random variable, the probability function for X is :

P(X=x)=(nCx)p^{x}(1-p)^{n-x}

Where P(X=x) is the probability of the random variable X to assume the value x

nCx is the combinatorial number define as :

nCx=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

n is the number of independent Bernoulli experiments taking place

And p is the success probability.

In counter I :

Y1 ~ Bi (n,p)

Y1 ~ Bi(2,0.2)

P(Y1=y1)=(2Cy1)(0.2)^{y1}(0.8)^{2-y1}

With y1 ∈ {0,1,2}

And P( Y1 = y1 ) = 0 with y1 ∉ {0,1,2}

In counter II :

Y2 ~ Bi (n,p)

Y2 ~ Bi (1,0.3)

P(Y2=y2)=(1Cy2)(0.3)^{y2}(0.7)^{1-y2}

With y2 ∈ {0,1}

And P( Y2 = y2 ) = 0 with y2 ∉ {0,1}

(1Cy2) with y2 = 0 and y2 = 1 is equal to 1 so the probability function for Y2 is :

P(Y2=y2)=(0.3)^{y2}(0.7)^{1-y2}

Y1 and Y2 are independent so the joint probability distribution is the product of the Y1 probability function and the Y2 probability function.

P(Y1=y1,Y2=y2)=P(Y1=y1).P(Y2=y2)

P(Y1=y1,Y2=y2)=(2Cy1)(0.2)^{y1}(0.8)^{2-y1}(0.3)^{y2}(0.7)^{1-y2}

With y1 ∈ {0,1,2} and y2 ∈ {0,1}

P( Y1 = y1 , Y2 = y2) = 0 when y1 ∉ {0,1,2} or y2 ∉ {0,1}

b. Not more than one of three customers will spend more than $50 can mathematically be expressed as :

Y1 + Y2 \leq 1

Y1 + Y2\leq 1 when Y1 = 0 and Y2 = 0 , when Y1 = 1 and Y2 = 0 and finally when Y1 = 0 and Y2 = 1

To calculate P(Y1+Y2\leq 1) we must sume all the probabilities that satisfy the equation :

P(Y1+Y2\leq 1)=P(Y1=0,Y2=0)+P(Y1=1,Y2=0)+P(Y1=0,Y2=1)

P(Y1=0,Y2=0)=(2C0)(0.2)^{0}(0.8)^{2-0}(0.3)^{0}(0.7)^{1-0}=(0.8)^{2}(0.7)=0.448

P(Y1=1,Y2=0)=(2C1)(0.2)^{1}(0.8)^{2-1}(0.3)^{0}(0.7)^{1-0}=2(0.2)(0.8)(0.7)=0.224

P(Y1=0,Y2=1)=(2C0)(0.2)^{0}(0.8)^{2-0}(0.3)^{1}(0.7)^{1-1}=(0.8)^{2}(0.3)=0.192

P(Y1+Y2\leq 1)=0.448+0.224+0.192=0.864\\P(Y1+Y2\leq 1)=0.864

7 0
3 years ago
I WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST HELP
Anika [276]
There you go it’s not Oscar but it’s the same question

5 0
3 years ago
3/4 x 2/3 as a fraction
svet-max [94.6K]

Answer:

Hi, There!

Your Answer is \frac{6}{12} ~or~\frac{1}{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{3}{4} ~x~\frac{2}{3} = \frac{3 ~x~2}{4~x~3}

Which Equals

\frac{6}{12}

Now if you dived the numerator and denominator by 6 you Get...

\frac{1}{2}

Therefore, I hope this helps!

Take Care!

-Jay-

5 0
3 years ago
35) The volume of a cone is 8 cubic
Anuta_ua [19.1K]

Answer:

24 cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of a cylinder is three times of a cone with same measurements

volume of cone is 8cm³

then,volume of cylinder is 8 × 3 = 24

7 0
2 years ago
-18=6a+3a what is a?
Jet001 [13]
A= -2

because u can add 6 and 3 and move it to other side to divide
5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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