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pishuonlain [190]
3 years ago
14

Put the phases of the business cycle in the correct order in which they follow a depression.

Business
2 answers:
yanalaym [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: Recession, Depression, Recovery, and Boom.

Explanation: a.p.e.x

Anika [276]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1. Recovery

2. Boom

3. Recession

4. Depression.

Explanation:

You are quite right. That is the order.

After a depression occurs and the economy is in dire straits, it begins to recover due to a mix of factors such as government spending and cheaper inputs enabling more production.

The peak of this recovery is the Boom where the economy is doing very well but inflation has risen which would then make inputs expensive again.

As workers begin to be laid off, a recession kicks in and without intervention the economy would continue it's downward spiral till it is back in a depression.

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Ou have 3 credit cards: $990.34 (credit limit: $3,500.00), $2,365.78 (credit limit: $4,600.00), and $5,897.65 (credit limit: $8,
Molodets [167]
The correct answer in this particular situation would be it increased.
4 0
4 years ago
When the world price of some good is above the domestic price (before trade), then after trade, that nation will likely be:
Rudiy27

Answer:

EXPORT

Explanation:

If the domestic price of a country for  a good is lower than world price before trade, it mean that the country is producing that good efficiently - at a cheaper cost. After trade, the country would export the good, so that the world can produce more of the goods it produces efficiently.

If the world price is below domestic price of a country before trade, after trade, the country would import

7 0
3 years ago
Power industries has acquired a patent for $16,000. its useful life is expected to be four years. Prepare the yearly journal ent
goblinko [34]

If Power industries has acquired a patent for $16,000. its useful life is expected to be four years. The yearly journal entry to recognize periodic amortization is: Debit  Amortization Expense - Patents $4,000; Credit Patents $4,000.

<h3>Journal entry </h3>

If the company has acquired a patent for the amount of  $16,000 in which the  useful life is expected to be four years. The appropriate  journal entry to recognize periodic amortization is:

Power industries journal entry

Debit  Amortization Expense - Patents $4,000

Credit Patents $4,000

($16,000/4 years)

(To record periodic amortization recognized)

Therefore the yearly journal entry to recognize periodic amortization is: Debit  Amortization Expense - Patents $4,000; Credit Patents $4,000.

Learn more about Journal entry here:brainly.com/question/14279491

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
Gene Simmons Company uses normal costing in each of its three manufacturing departments. Factory overhead is applied to producti
kolbaska11 [484]

Answer:

<u>Required A</u>

Part 1

<em>Actual overhead rate = Actual Overheads ÷ Actual hours used</em>

Therefore,

Dep A = $35,640 ÷ 8,100 = $4.40

Dep B = $36,040 ÷ 1,440 = $25.03

Dep C = $38,220 ÷ 1,280 = $29.86

Part 2

<em>Overheads applied = Overhead rate × hours used</em>

Therefore,

Overheads applied = $4.40 × 650 hours = $2,860

Part 3

1. Actual costing delays product costing as the information is only available after the period.

2. Difficult to deal with for fluctuating or seasonal sales as new rates always need to be calculated.

<u>Required B</u>

Part 1

1. Product Costing can be done on time hence price setting can also be done at an earlier stage.

2. Rates are determined consistently for fluctuating or seasonal sales

Part 2

<em>Predetermined overhead rate = Budgeted Overheads ÷ Budgeted hours </em>

Therefore,

Dep A = $380,000 ÷ 95,000 = $4.00

Dep B = $420,000 ÷ 70,000 = $6.00

Dep C = $510,000 ÷ 35,000 = $14.57

Part 3

<em>Overheads applied = Predetermined overhead rate × hours used</em>

Therefore,

Overheads applied for January,

Department A = $4.00 × 8,100 hours = $32,400

Department B = $6.00 × 1,440 hours = $8,640

Department C = $14.57 × 1,280 hours = $18,649.60

Part 4

If <em>Actual Overheads > Applied Overheads</em>, we say overheads are under-applied,

and

If <em>Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads</em>, we say overheads are over-applied.

Therefore,

<u>Department A :</u>

Actual Overheads = $35,640

Applied Overheads = $32,400

Therefore, overheads are under-applied by $3,240

<u>Department B :</u>

Actual Overheads = $36,040

Applied Overheads = $8,640

Therefore, overheads are under-applied by $27,400

<u>Department C :</u>

Actual Overheads = $38,220

Applied Overheads = $18,649.60

Therefore, overheads are under-applied by $19,570.40

Part 5

<u>Department A</u>

Cost of Sales = $3,240

<u>Department B</u>

Cost of Sales = $27,400

<u>Department C</u>

Cost of Sales = $19,570.40

Part 6

<u>Department A</u>

Cost of Sales = $3,240

<u>Department B</u>

Cost of Sales = $27,400

<u>Department C</u>

Cost of Sales = $19,570.40

Explanations :

See the formulas and calculations tied together with the solution above.

Note that :

If <em>Actual Overheads > Applied Overheads</em>, we say overheads are under-applied,

and

If <em>Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads</em>, we say overheads are over-applied.

Also that ,

Balances in the Overheads Account are closed off against the Cost of Goods Sold in the Income Statement.

 

7 0
3 years ago
Machines J and K have the following investment and operating costs: Year 0 1 2 3 J 11000 1200 1300 K 13000 1200 1300 1400 Which
Naily [24]

Answer:

Machine K

Explanation:

The values can be better computed as:

 Year     0          1           2         3

J         11000   1200      1`300

K         13000   1200     1300    1400

Using the PV Calculator

The Present Value (PV) for each year in Machine J is as follows:

Cashflow    Year      Present Value

11000           0             11000

1200             1              1085.97

1300             2              1064.68

Total                            13,150.65

The effective annual cost = \dfrac{NPV\times r}{1-(1+r)^{-n}}

=\dfrac{13150.65 \times 0.1050}{1-(1+0.1050)^{-2}}

= $7628.16

Using the PV Calculator

The Present Value (PV) for each year in Machine K is as follows:

Cashflow    Year      Present Value

13000           0             13000

1200             1              1085.97

1300             2             1064.68

1400             3             1037.63

Total                            16,188.28

The effective annual cost = \dfrac{NPV\times r}{1-(1+r)^{-n}}

=\dfrac{16188.28 \times 0.1050}{1-(1+0.1050)^{-3}}

= $6566.92

Therefore, machine K is better to buy than machine J.

6 0
3 years ago
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