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natita [175]
3 years ago
15

On December 31, 2020, McDaniel Company had $1,200,000 of short-term debt in the form of notes payable due February 2, 2021. On J

anuary 21, 2021, the company issued 25,000 shares of its common stock for $38 per share, receiving $950,000 proceeds after brokerage fees and other costs of issuance. On February 2, 2021, the proceeds from the stock sale, supplemented by an additional $250,000 cash, are used to liquidate the $1,200,000 debt. The December 31, 2020, balance sheet is issued on February 23, 2021. Show how the $1,200,000 of short-term debt should be presented on the December 31, 2017, balance sheet.
Business
1 answer:
icang [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Current Liabilities:Notes Payable 250,000

Long-term Debt:Notes Payable 950,000

Explanation:

Calculation to Show how the $1,200,000 of short-term debt should be presented on the December 31, 2017, balance sheet.

Hattie McDaniel Company

Partial Balance Sheet

December 31, 2017

CURRENT LIABILITIES

Notes Payable 250,000

($1,200,000-$950,000)

LONG-TERM DEBT

Notes Payable 950,000

Therefore how the $1,200,000 of short-term debt should be presented on the December 31, 2017, balance sheet is:

Current Liabilities:Notes Payable 250,000

Long-term Debt:Notes Payable 950,000

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Explanation:

The preparation of the Assets section is shown below:-

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                                         Adjusted Trial Balance

                                           December 31, 2016

Particulars                                               Assets

Cash                                                        $88,450

Accounts Receivable                             $150,000

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Total current assets                               $179,255

Fixed Assets

Equipment                            $295,285

Accumulated Depreciation -$238,760  $56,525

Stock Investment                                     $172,000

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Total Assets                                              $407,780

Total Assets = Total current assets + Total fixed assets

7 0
3 years ago
Echo Sound Company just began business and made the following four inventory purchases in June: June 1 150 units $ 780 June 10 2
blsea [12.9K]

Answer:

The correct answer is A.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

June 1: $780/150 units= $5.2 per unit

June 10: $1,170/200 units= $5.85 per unit

June 15: $1,260/200= $6.3 per unit

June 28: $990/150= $6.6 per units

A physical count of merchandise inventory on June 30 reveals that there are 210 units on hand.

Units sold= total units - ending inventory

Units sold= (150 + 200 + 200 + 150) - 210= 490 units

<u>The method with the lowest cost of goods sold will have the highest income:</u>

FIFO (first-in, first-out):

COGS= 150*5.2 + 200*5.85 + 140*6.3= $2,832

LIFO /last-in, first-out)

COGS= 150*6.6 + 200*6.3 + 140*5.85= $3,069

Weighted-average:

Weighted-average price= (5.2 + 5.85 + 6.3 + 6.6)/4= 5.99

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3 years ago
Two investment opportunities are as follows:________. Alt A Alt B First Cost 200 100 Uniform annual benefit 32 27 End of useful
Talja [164]

Answer:

Since the 4.34 NPV of Alt A is greater than the 2.35 NPV of Alt B, it therefore implies that Alt A should be selected.

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged together. They are therefore sorted before answering the question as follows:

                                                          Alt A              Alt B

First Cost                                           200                 100

Uniform annual benefit                       32                   27

End of useful life salvage value         20                    0

Useful life, in years                              10                     5

The explanation to the answer is now given as follows:

a. Calculation of NPV of Alt A

First Cost = 200

PV of uniform annual benefit = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) ……………………. (2)

Where;

P = uniform annual benefit = 32

r = MACC = 10%, or 0.10

n = number of useful years = 10

Note: The formula for calculating the present value of ordinary annuity is being used here to calculate the Present Value (PV) of uniform annual benefit.

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV of uniform annual benefit = 32 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.10))^10) / 0.10) = 32 * 6.14456710570468 = 196.63

PV of Salvage value = FV / (1 + r)^n ..................... (2)

Where;

FV = End of useful life salvage value = 20

r = MACC = 10%, or 0.10

n = number of useful years = 10

Note: The normal formula for calculating the present value (PV) is being used here to calculate the PV of Salvage value

Substitute the values into equation (2) to have:

PV of Salvage value = 20 / (1 + 0.10)^10 = 20 / 2.5937424601 = 7.71

Net present value (NPV) of Alt .A = PV of uniform annual benefit + PV of Salvage value - First cost = 196.63 + 7.71 - 200 = 4.34

b. Calculation of NPV of Alt B

First Cost = 100

PV of uniform annual benefit = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) ……………………. (3)

Where;

P = uniform annual benefit = 27

r = MACC = 10%, or 0.10

n = number of useful years = 5

Note: The formula for calculating the present value of ordinary annuity is also being used here to calculate the Present Value (PV) of uniform annual benefit.

Substitute the values into equation (3) to have:

PV of uniform annual benefit = 27 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.10))^5) / 0.10) = 27 * 3.79078676940845 = 102.35

NPV of Alt B = PV of uniform annual benefit - First cost = 102.35 – 100 = 2.35

c. Decision

Since the 4.34 NPV of Alt A is greater than the 2.35 NPV of Alt B, it therefore implies that Alt A should be selected.

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