1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Nastasia [14]
2 years ago
15

6x - 10 = 4x + 6 Which value of x makes this equation true?

Mathematics
2 answers:
evablogger [386]2 years ago
5 0
This is what I got and how I did it

8_murik_8 [283]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

x=8

Step-by-step explanation:

Is this the answer you wanted if not I can change it

You might be interested in
What is $36 plus $36
gogolik [260]

Answer: The answer is 72

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Write an equation of the line with a slope of 0 and y -intercept of 5 .<br><br> y=
ruslelena [56]

Answer:

y=-5

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
$6.00+$8.00 = <br> answer
aniked [119]

Answer:

14,00

Step-by-step explanation:

14 bru

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How to rewite this x+4y=-4 in form y=mx+b
Alex
x+4y=-4\\&#10;4y=-x-4\\&#10;y=-\frac{1}{4}x-1
3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On Texas Avenue between University Drive and George Bush Drive, accidents occur according to a Poisson process at a rate of thre
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

(a) The probability is 0.6514

(b) The probability is 0.7769

Step-by-step explanation:

If the number of accidents occur according to a poisson process, the probability that x accidents occurs on a given day is:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}

Where a is the mean number of accidents per day and t is the number of days.

So, for part (a), a is equal to 3/7 and t is equal to 1 day, because there is a rate of 3 accidents every 7 days.

Then, the probability that a given day has no accidents is calculated as:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{x}}{x!}

P(0)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{0}}{0!}=0.6514

On the other hand the probability that February has at least one accident with a personal injury is calculated as:

P(x≥1)=1 - P(0)

Where P(0) is calculated as:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}

Where a is equivalent to (3/7)(1/8) because that is the mean number of accidents with personal injury per day, and t is equal to 28 because 4 weeks has 28 days, so:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{x}}{x!}

P(0)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{0}}{0!}=0.2231

Finally, P(x≥1) is:

P(x≥1) = 1 - 0.2231 = 0.7769

3 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • What is the standard form of 3x+(2-4x)
    13·1 answer
  • ‼️‼️help please ASAP
    13·2 answers
  • Line segment ON is perpendicular to line segment ML. What is the length of segment NP?
    11·1 answer
  • What's the second question answer??
    11·1 answer
  • I really need help can ya'll please help. ://<br> Thank you
    5·2 answers
  • Below are two different functions, f(x) and g(x). What can be determined about their y-intercepts?
    8·2 answers
  • HELPPP pweaseeee :( im confused again
    15·1 answer
  • You earn 10% commission on furniture sales. This week you have sold $3,000 in furniture. Your goal for the week is to earn $550
    7·1 answer
  • Share 4000 in a ratio 3:4:1​
    12·2 answers
  • What is 6 divided by 2 (1+2) =<br><br> *I didn't know how to put a division sign on keyboard.*
    5·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!