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EleoNora [17]
3 years ago
15

Please help me with my homwork!!!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
patriot [66]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

nah

Step-by-step explanation:

i dont want to

Nataliya [291]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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An appliance store sells lamps at $95.00 for two. A department store sells similar lamps at five for $250.00. Which store sells
snow_tiger [21]

Answer:

Appliance store has better rate than department store.

Step-by-step explanation:

Appliance store gives 2 for $95

So price of 1 will be = 95/2 = $47.5

Department store sells 5 for $250

So price of 1 will be = $250/5 = $ 50

So as a buyer we are in profit when buy from appliance store because we are at a profit of $2.5 per lamp.

I hope it will help you!

5 0
3 years ago
Solve for x. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.
Gala2k [10]

Answer:

93.99

Step-by-step explanation:

sin rule is:

sin A ÷ a = sin B ÷ b = sin C ÷ c

A B C are angles

a b c are the lengths opposite to each angle

to find angle opposite to x:

180- (90+57) = 33°

180: sum of angles in a traingle

90: since its a right angle traingle

to find x:

sin 57 ÷ 41 = sin 33 ÷ x

rearrange:

x= (sin 33 x 41) ÷ sin 57

x= 93.99 (2 d.p/2 decimal places)

8 0
3 years ago
Cody filled of a bag with litter that he was picking up. michelle filled of a bag with litter. how much more litter did cody pic
melomori [17]
With maybe 100 grams...
3 0
3 years ago
if 500 is deposited into an account earning 6 percent simple interest what is the future value in 6 years how do you work it put
djverab [1.8K]
\bf \qquad \textit{Simple Interest Earned Amount}\\\\
A=P(1+rt)\qquad 
\begin{cases}
A=\textit{accumulated amount}\\
P=\textit{original amount deposited}\to& \$500\\
r=rate\to 6\%\to \frac{6}{100}\to &0.06\\
t=years\to &6
\end{cases}
\\\\\\
A=500(1+0.06\cdot 6)
4 0
3 years ago
Haley works at a candy store. There are 10 types of bulk candy. Find the probability that one type of candy will be chosen more
DIA [1.3K]

Answer:

Probability that one type of candy will be chosen more than once in 10 trials = 0.2639

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial experiment because

- A binomial experiment is one in which the probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials.

- It usually consists of a number of runs/trials with only two possible outcomes, a success or a failure. (10 trials, with the outcome of each trial being that we get the required candy or not)

- The outcome of each trial/run of a binomial experiment is independent of one another.

Binomial distribution function is represented by

P(X = x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ

n = total number of sample spaces = 10 trials

x = Number of successes required = number of times we want to pick a particular brand of candy = more than once, that is > 1

p = probability of success = probability of picking a particular brand of candy from a bulk with 10 different types of candies = (1/10) = 0.10

q = probability of failure = Probability of not picking our wanted candy = 1 - p = 1 - 0.1 = 0.90

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X ≤ 1)

P(X ≤ 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = ¹⁰C₀ (0.10)⁰ (0.90)¹⁰⁻⁰ = 0.3486784401

P(X = 1) = ¹⁰C₁ (0.10)¹ (0.90)¹⁰⁻¹ = 0.387420489

P(X ≤ 1) = 0.3486784401 + 0.387420489 = 0.7360989291

P(X > 1) = 1 - 0.7360989291 = 0.2639010709 = 0.2639

Hope this Helps!!!

5 0
3 years ago
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