Since only the principal value, interest rate and interest period are given, we can deduce that "finance charge" only includes the interest to be paid at the end of the term. This can be obtained by subtracting the principal value from the future value which we will solve for.
The future value can be solved by using the following compound interest formula:
Let:
F = Future value
P = Principal value
r<span> = annual interest rate </span>
n<span> = number of times that interest is compounded per year</span>
t<span> = number of years</span>
F = P(1 + r/n)^nt
Substituting the given values:
F = 4250(1 + 0.1325/12)^(12*2)
F = 5531.54
Subtracting P from F:
Finance charge = 5531.54 - 4250 = 1281.54
Therefore the finance charge is $1,281.54
Multiply -3[4x+y=6].
This gets you -12x-3y=-18.
Add the two equations together to eliminate the y.
-12x - 3y = -18
+ 12x + 3y = 18
------------------------
0 = 0
This means that these are in fact the same line, therefore there are infinite solutions.
Answer: a. 0.61
b. 0.37
c. 0.63
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question,
P(A) = 0.39 and P(B) = 0.24
P(success) + P( failure) = 1
A) What is the probability that the component does not fail the test?
Since A is the event that the component fails a particular test, the probability that the component does not fail the test will be P(success). This will be:
= 1 - P(A)
= 1 - 0.39
= 0.61
B) What is the probability that a component works perfectly well (i.e., neither displays strain nor fails the test)?
This will be the probability that the component does not fail the test minus the event that the component displays strain but does not actually fail. This will be:
= [1 - P(A)] - P(B)
= 0.61 - 0.24
= 0.37
C) What is the probability that the component either fails or shows strain in the test?
This will simply be:
= 1 - P(probability that a component works perfectly well)
= 1 - 0.37
= 0.63
Step-by-step explanation:
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The table is 13 inches wider than the chair.
