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maw [93]
3 years ago
11

HELLPPPP YALLLLLLLLK ASAPPPPP

Mathematics
1 answer:
Genrish500 [490]3 years ago
6 0

4) Let the number be : N

Given : 10% of this number is 25

\sf{\implies 10\% \ of \ N = 25}

\sf{\implies \dfrac{10}{100} \times N = 25}

\sf{\implies \dfrac{N}{10} = 25}

\sf{\implies N = 250}

Now we need to find 60% of 250

\sf{\implies \dfrac{60}{100} \times 250}

\sf{\implies 6 \times 25}

\sf{\implies 150}

5) Given : James left the home at 10 : 00 AM

First : He will meet his friend Tom at the skate park which is 15 minutes walk from his home.

So, James reached the skate park 10 : 15 AM

Second : They stayed at the skate park for an hour

So, till 11 : 15 AM James and Tom were at skate park

Third : Then they will take a 10 minutes walk over to the Burger bar

So, James and Tom reached the Burger bar at 11 : 25 AM

6) First let us find 75% of 80

\sf{\implies \dfrac{75}{100} \times 80}

\sf{\implies 15 \times 4}

\sf{\implies 60}

Now let us find 40% of 30

\sf{\implies \dfrac{40}{100} \times 30}

\sf{\implies 12}

Now, (60 - 12) = 48

<u>Answer:</u> 75% of 80 is 48 greater than 40% of 30

7) Given : Journey to school takes 70 minutes

We know that : 1 hour = 60 minutes

So, 70 minutes = 1 hour + 10 minutes

Given : Boy leaves the home at 0715

<u>Answer:</u> The Boy arrives at 0825

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Answer:

a) For this case we can use the binomial model since we assume independent events and the same probability for each trial is the same p =0.15

b) P(X=0)=(10C0)(0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

c) P(X=3)=(10C3)(0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}=0.1298

d) P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

And using the result from part a we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n p)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Solution to the problem

Part a

For this case we can use the binomial model since we assume independent events and the same probability for each trial is the same p =0.15

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=0)

And replacing we got:

P(X=0)=(10C0)(0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

Part c

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=3)

And replacing we got:

P(X=3)=(10C3)(0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}=0.1298

Part d

For this cae we want thi probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complment rule and we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

And using the result from part a we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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I’m giving you formulas that are labeled: side a shortest

” b mid length

” c hypotenuse

angle α(alpha) opposite side a

” β(beta) ” ” b

” γ(gamma) ” ” c

A major formula for rt triangles is: a^2+b^2=c^2.

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Remember α+β+γ=180°.

As for sides a&b use the above formula.

As for <ACB; the angle is γ which is a rt <.

Given: tan<x=5/2+1/2=6/2=3atan=71.565……….°=β. So α=18.44…….°. γ= rt angle.

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