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Iteru [2.4K]
2 years ago
10

4. Brandon throws a tennis ball vertically upward. The ball returns to the point of release after 4.0 s. What is the

Physics
1 answer:
vekshin12 years ago
6 0

Answer:

-39.2m/s

Explanation:

Using the equation of motion;

v = u + at

Since the ball is thrown upward, the acceleration due to gravity acting on it will be negative, hence a = -g

v = u - gt

Since g = 9.8m/s²

t = 4.0s

u = 0m/s

v = 0 + (-9.8)(4)

v = 0 + (-9.8)(4)

v = -39.2m/s

Hence the speed of the ball before release is -39.2m/s

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A loaded barge has a mass of 1 500 000 kg and is traveling at 3 m/s. If a tugboat applies an opposing force of 12 000 N for 10 s
yan [13]

Answer:

Explanation:

Initial momentum is 1.5e6(3) = 4.5e6 kg•m/s

An impulse results in a change of momentum

The tug applied impulse is 12000(10) = 120000 N•s or 0.12e6 kg•m/s

The remaining momentum is 4.5e6 - 0.12e6 =  4.38e6 kg•m/s

The barge velocity is now 4.38e6 / 1.5e6 = 2.92 m/s

The tug applies 0.012e6 N•s of impulse each second.

The initial barge momentum will be zero in

t = 4.5e6 / 0.012e6 = 375 s or 6 minutes and 15 seconds

To stop the barge in one minute(60 s), the tug would have to apply

4.5e6 / 60 = 75000 N•s /s or 75 000 N

5 0
2 years ago
If you're going 80 mph how long does it take to go 80 miles
Elza [17]
1 mile. Is this a joke lol
6 0
3 years ago
If the elevation in reservoir b is 100m, what must the elevation in reservoir a be if thevolume flow rate through the cast-iron
Zinaida [17]

The elevation in reservoir  at  the rate of flow using is 03m/s  is 114m.

The Reynolds range is the ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces. The Reynolds variety is a dimensionless variety used to categorize the fluids structures in which the impact of viscosity is crucial in controlling the velocities or the flow sample of a fluid.

The reason of the Reynolds number is to get a few experience of the relationship in fluid glide between inertial forces (this is those that maintain going by using Newton's first law – an item in motion stays in movement) and viscous forces, this is people who cause the fluid to come back to a forestall because of the viscosity of the fluid.

calculation,

Let L = 100 m pipe

     L1 = 150 m pipe

H f = friction losses

Using Reynolds number, relative  roughness, friction co- effiicients and friction losses

Substitute the value in equation

Z = 110= 0.48= 3.54

Z = 114m

Therefore water surface elevation at reservoir  is 114 meter.

Learn more about rate of flow here:-brainly.com/question/21630019

#SPJ4

6 0
1 year ago
Tim and Rick both can run at speed Vr and walk at speed Vw, with Vr > Vw.
miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

Δt =  \frac{2D}{Vw+Vr} - \frac{D}{2Vr} - \frac{D}{2Vw}

Explanation:

Hi there!

Using the equation of speed for the whole trip, we can obtain the time each one needed to cover the distance D.

The speed (v) is calculated by dividing the traveled distance (d) over the time needed to cover that distance (t):

v = d/t

Rick traveled half of the distance at Vr and the other half at Vw. Then, when v = Vr, the distance traveled was D/2 and the time is unknown, Δt1:

Vr = D/ (2 · Δt1)

For the other half of the trip the expression of velocity will be:

Vw = D/(2 · Δt2)

The total time traveled is the sum of both Δt:

Δt(total) = Δt1 + Δt2

Then, solving the first equation for Δt1:

Vr = D/ (2 · Δt1)

Δt1 = D/(2 · Vr)

In the same way for the second equation:

Δt2 = D/(2 · Vw)

Δt + Δt2 = D/(2 · Vr) + D/(2 · Vw)

Δt(total) = D/2 · (1/Vr + 1/Vw)

The time needed by Rick to complete the trip was:

Δt(total) = D/2 · (1/Vr + 1/Vw)

Now let´s calculate the time it took Tim to do the trip:

Tim walks half of the time, then his speed could be expressed as follows:

Vw = 2d1/Δt  Where d1 is the traveled distance.

Solving for d1:

Vw · Δt/2 = d1

He then ran half of the time:

Vr = 2d2/Δt

Solving for d2:

Vr · Δt/2 = d2

Since d1 + d2 = D, then:

Vw · Δt/2 +  Vr · Δt/2 = D

Solving for Δt:

Δt (Vw/2 + Vr/2) = D

Δt = D / (Vw/2 + Vr/2)

Δt = D/ ((Vw + Vr)/2)

Δt = 2D / (Vw + Vr)

The time needed by Tim to complete the trip was:

Δt = 2D / (Vw + Vr)

Let´s find the diference between the time done by Tim and the one done by Rick:

Δt(tim) - Δt(rick)

2D / (Vw + Vr) - (D/2 · (1/Vr + 1/Vw))

\frac{2D}{Vw+Vr} - \frac{D}{2Vr} - \frac{D}{2Vw} = Δt

Let´s check the result. If Vr = Vw:

Δt = 2D/2Vr - D/2Vr - D/2Vr

Δt = D/Vr - D/Vr = 0

This makes sense because if both move with the same velocity all the time both will do the trip in the same time.

8 0
3 years ago
What would be the result of an alpha particle coming into a magnetic field?
Aneli [31]
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "C) The alpha particle will be deflected in a curve path. " the result of an alpha particle coming into a magnetic field is that <span>C) The alpha particle will be deflected in a curve path. </span>
8 0
2 years ago
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