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Crank
3 years ago
13

The operating ratio for a PC insurer equals _________. A. loss ratio plus the ratios of loss adjustment expenses to premiums ear

ned. B. loss ratio plus expense ratio plus dividend ratio. C. combined ratio minus dividends paid to policyholders. D. acquisition costs plus dividends paid as a proportion of premiums earned. E. combined ratio after dividends minus the investment yield.
Business
1 answer:
FinnZ [79.3K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

. E. combined ratio after dividends minus the investment yield

Explanation:

The operating ratio for a PC insurer

can be regarded as the comparison of total expenses of a company compared to net sales generated or the generated revenue. The operating ratio gives the measurement of a overall operational profitability of a firm from both underwriting as well as investment activities. It can be calculated by finding the ratio of

(property's operating expense after substraction of depreciation) and ( the gross operating income). It should be noted that The operating ratio for a PC insurer equals combined ratio after dividends minus the investment yield.

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What do you think makes codes of conduct successful in managing industrial relations in MNEs?
poizon [28]

What makes codes of conduct successful in managing industrial relations in MNES is the standardization of a global code of conduct that incorporates a set of principles and missions that guide and motivate employees.

Well-structured codes of conduct are effective in creating a sense of belonging in the management of industrial relations in MNEs, bringing together across different corporate cultures the sense of unification and support of work.

Therefore, a global code of conduct will assist in guiding and strategically controlling the operations of MNEs, to ensure compliance with positive conduct practices in the global market.

Learn more here:

brainly.com/question/18880818

4 0
3 years ago
The following information is taken from the financial records of Gunner Manufacturing: Cost of materials used $45,000 Direct lab
zaharov [31]

Answer:

$122000

Explanation:

Given:

Cost of materials used = $45,000

Direct labor costs = $48,000

Factory overhead = $39,000

Beginning work in progress = $18,000

Ending Work in Process = $28,000

Question asked:

What is the cost of goods manufactured ?

Solution:

Cost of goods manufactured = Direct Materials Used  + Direct Labor Used  + Manufacturing Overhead  + Beginning Work in Process - Ending Work in Process

Cost of goods manufactured = $45,000 +  $48,000 + $39,000 + $18,000 -  $28,000

Cost of goods manufactured = $122000

Therefore, cost of goods manufactured of Gunner Manufacturing is $122000.

3 0
3 years ago
Palmer Corp. is considering the purchase of a new piece of equipment. The cost savings from the equipment would result in an ann
VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

So, accounting rate of return = 33 %

Explanation:

given data

net income after tax = $179,850

initial cost = $545,000

time = 7 year

salvage value = $34,000

we will get here  the accounting rate of return

solution

as we know that accounting rate of return is express as

accounting rate of return = Net income ÷ initial investment    .................1

put here value and we get

accounting rate of return = \frac{179850}{545000}  

So, accounting rate of return = 33 %

7 0
3 years ago
The yield to maturity (YTM) on 1-year zero-coupon bonds is 7% and the YTM on 2-year zeros is 8%. The yield to maturity on 2-year
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

(a) The arbitrage strategy is to buy zeros with face values of $140 and $1,140 and respective maturities of one and two years, and simultaneously sell the coupon bond.

(b) The profit on the activity equals $0.72 on each bond.

Explanation:

The price of the coupon bond = 140 × PV(7.9%, 2) + 1000 × PV(7.9%, 2)

= 140 × (1-(1/1.079)^2)/0.079 + 1,000/1.079^2

= $1,108.93

If the coupons were withdrawn and sold as zeros individually, then the coupon payments could be sold separately on the basis of the zero maturity yield for maturities of one and two years.

[140/1.07] + [1,140/1.08^2] = $1,108.21.

The arbitrage strategy is to buy zeros with face values of $140 and $1,140 and respective maturities of one and two years, and simultaneously sell the coupon bond.

The profit on the activity equals $0.72 on each bond.

7 0
3 years ago
Percentage returns:
weeeeeb [17]

Answer:

I. easily convey the return for each dollar invested.

Explanation:

Percentage of returns is used to explain the return on an investment relative to the amount invested.

It can also be called a return on investment (ROI). Return on investements is always expressed as percentages or ration and is usually calculated with formula

​ROI  =   <u> Current Value of Investment−Cost of Investment​</u>       ×     100%

                                Cost of Investment

Cheers.

7 0
4 years ago
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