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tatyana61 [14]
3 years ago
11

Copy the proof on paper, mark the givens in the diagram, and fill in the blanks to complete the proof.

Mathematics
2 answers:
DIA [1.3K]3 years ago
6 0
Don’t use Brainly to get other people to do your work for you.
marshall27 [118]3 years ago
4 0

This is the actual answer:

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I need help on this it’s about trig identities
Cerrena [4.2K]

Answer:

The answer to your question is:

Step-by-step explanation:

1.-

\frac{1 + sin\alpha }{cos\alpha } + \frac{cos\alpha }{1 + sin\alpha } = 2 sec\alpha

\frac{(1 + sin\alpha)^{2} + cos^{2} \alpha  }{cos\alpha (1 + sin\alpha) }

\frac{1  + 2sin\alpha + sin^{2} \alpha+ cos^{2} \alpha  }{cos\alpha + sin\alphacos\alpha  }

\frac{2 + 2sin\alpha }{cos\alpha+ sin\alpha cos\alpha  }

\frac{2(1 + sin\alpha) }{cos\alpha(1 + sin\alpha ) }

\frac{2}{cos\alpha }

2sec\alpha

2.-

   sec²x - tanxsecx

\frac{1}{cos^{2}x } - \frac{sinx}{cosx} \frac{1}{cosx}

\frac{1}{cos^{2} x} - \frac{sinx}{cos^{2}x}

\frac{1 - sinx}{cos^{2}x }

\frac{1 - sinx}{1 - sin^{2}x }

\frac{1 - sinx}{(1 - sinx)(1 + sinx)}

\frac{1}{1 + sinx}

3 0
3 years ago
Find 15 + (-72) show your work<br><br> I will give Brainly! Pls help!
Umnica [9.8K]

Answer: -57

Step-by-step explanation:

15 + ( - 72)

Distribute

15 - 72

When this happens, you subtract the smaller number by the bigger one, then put the sign that was on the bigger number on what you get.

72 - 15 = 57

Put a negative sign on 57

-57

15 + (-72) = -57

6 0
3 years ago
Doug says that this clock shows 8:43.is he correct? Explain why or why not.
ss7ja [257]
Is this a joke because it made me laugh
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Convert 2 1/5 to an<br> improper fraction.
DochEvi [55]

Answer: 11/5

Step-by-step explanation:

you would do (2) times (5) to get 10.

then you'd add 1+10 to get 11.

write this new number as the numerator... 11/5.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The probability that a customer of a network operator has a problem about you needing technical staff's help in a month is 0.01.
snow_tiger [21]

Answer:

(a) average calls = 5  

(b) probability that there is exactly one call in 6 consecutive monts = 0.038

Step-by-step explanation:

Let event of a customer requiring help in a particular month = H

and event of a customer not requiring help in a particular month = ~H

Given

p= 0.01,  therefore

Number of households, n = 500.

Binomial distribution:

x = number of households requiring help in a particular month

P(x,n,p) = C(x,n)*p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)

where

C(x,n) = n!/(x!(n-x)!) is the the number of combinations of x objects out of n

(a) Average number of households requiring help = np = 500*0.01 = 5

(b)

Probability that there are no calls requiring help in a particular month

P(0), q= C(0,n)*p^0(1-p)^(n-0)

= 1*1*0.99^500

= 0.006570483

Applying binomial probability over six months,

q = 0.006570483

n = 6

x = 1

P(x,n,q)

= C(x,n)*q^x*(1-q)^(n-x)

= 6!/(1!*5!) * 0.006570483^1 * (1-0.006570483)^5

= 0.038145

Therefore the probability that in 6 consecutive months there is exactly one month that no customer has called for help = 0.038

3 0
3 years ago
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