Question

Inverse Functions, graphs

Answer 1

$\huge\mathfrak\pink{A} \huge\mathfrak\purple{n} \huge\mathfrak\blue{s} \huge\mathfrak\red{w} \huge\mathfrak\green{e} \huge\mathfrak\orange{r}$

• NO ,The inverse ain't a function

=> The vertical line test can be used to determine whether a graph represents a function. If we can draw any vertical line that intersects a graph more than once, then the graph does not define a function because a function has only one output value for each input value.

• Yes The function is inverse Because (0.25,2) = (2,0.25),(0.5,1)=(1,0.5) ,(0,1)(1,0)& (-1,2) = (2,-1)

Hope it helps

~ʆᵒŕ∂ཇꜱꜹⱽẻⱮë

Answer 2

Answer:

a.

inverse

of

(0,1)=(1,0)

(1,0)=(0,1)

(2,-1)=(-1,2)

(3,0)=(0,3)

(4,1)=(1,4)

Step-by-step explanation:

b.

yes the function are inverse

as

(-1,2)=(2,-1)

(0,1)=(1,0)