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3 years ago

Please help! Ill mark brainliest if correct! help ASAP

Mathematics

2 answers:

amm18123 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Its 1,020

Hope u get it right!!!

U got this!!!!!!!!!!

Step-by-step explanation:

77julia77 [94]3 years ago

4 0

The surface area would be 615 square centimeters.

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Colton earns $7 per hour plus $1.50 for each pizza delivery. The expression 7h+1.50d can be used to find the total earnings afte

Fed [463]

He would make $117 because 7x15=105 and 1.50x8=$12.00 add that together you get 117

4 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A bus service drives passengers between San Diego and Los Angeles every day. They make 8 roundtrips a day. The distance between

yawa3891 [41]

Answer

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

(8 roundtrips)(89 miles)(28 days) = 19,936

3 0

3 years ago

What are the zeros of the function: f(x) = 2x^2-50

yan [13]

When f(x) = 0,

$2x^2 - 50 = 0$

$2(x^2 - 25) = 0$

$2(x- 5)(x + 5) = 0$

$(x - 5) = 0 \ or \ (x + 5) = 0$

$x = 5 \ or \ x = -5$

--------------------------------
Answer : x = 5 or -5
--------------------------------

3 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

GIVING BRAINLIEST. please help!

Naddik [55]

The answer should b C

4 0

3 years ago

On Texas Avenue between University Drive and George Bush Drive, accidents occur according to a Poisson process at a rate of thre

Zarrin [17]

Answer:

(a) The probability is 0.6514

(b) The probability is 0.7769

Step-by-step explanation:

If the number of accidents occur according to a poisson process, the probability that x accidents occurs on a given day is:

$P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}$

Where a is the mean number of accidents per day and t is the number of days.

So, for part (a), a is equal to 3/7 and t is equal to 1 day, because there is a rate of 3 accidents every 7 days.

Then, the probability that a given day has no accidents is calculated as:

$P(x)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{x}}{x!}$

$P(0)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{0}}{0!}=0.6514$

On the other hand the probability that February has at least one accident with a personal injury is calculated as:

P(x≥1)=1 - P(0)

Where P(0) is calculated as:

$P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}$

Where a is equivalent to (3/7)(1/8) because that is the mean number of accidents with personal injury per day, and t is equal to 28 because 4 weeks has 28 days, so:

$P(x)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{x}}{x!}$

$P(0)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{0}}{0!}=0.2231$

Finally, P(x≥1) is:

P(x≥1) = 1 - 0.2231 = 0.7769

3 0

3 years ago