Answer:
41 students
Step-by-step explanation:
(16,600-1500)/367
The answer is 0.25 bc I asked Siri
I think it would be y=-1(x)+1
First, understand that 2n+1 means that 2 times any number plus 1 will be an odd number. You can try this out. If you plug in any number, multiply it by 2 and add 1 it will be odd.
Second, consecutive odd integers are always two numbers apart.
3,5,7,9, etc...
3+2 = 5
5+2 = 7
7+2 = 9 etc...
So two consecutive odd integers can be written as:
2n+1 and (2n+1) +2
we can simplify (2n+1) +2 into 2n +3
the product of two consecutive odd integers would be
(2n+1) x (2n+3)
if we distribute this we get:
4+6n + 2n +3
= 4+8n +3
What we can do now is separate the +3 into +1 and +2
4+8n +3
4+8n +2 +1
Now we can factor out a 2 from the equation
2(2+4n +1) +1
Now you can see that we have the equation:
2 times some number + 1
No matter what (2+4n +1) is, if we multiply it by 2 and add 1, it will be odd.
So we have proven that the product 2 consecutive odd integers is odd.
No.
A dilation of the kind we are concerned with preserves angle measures. If the angle measures change, it is not a dilation.*
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* If the scale factor in one direction is different from the scale factor in another direction, the dilation will not be homogeneous. Angles will not be preserved, though parallel lines will remain parallel. We are generally concerned with homogeneous dilations in which the scale factor is the same in every direction from the center of the dilation.
