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3 years ago

8

I need help if you get it right I will mark you as brainlest

1 answer:

musickatia [10]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

D. 9/DF=18/16.......the answer

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A binomial probability experiment is conducted with the given parameters. Compute the probability of x successes in the n indepe

-Dominant- [34]

Answer: 0.0031

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial distribution formula :-

$P(x)=^nC_xp^x(1-p)^{n-x}$ , where P(x) is the probability of x successes in the n independent trials of the experiment and p is the probability of success.

Given : A binomial probability experiment is conducted with the given parameters.

$n=9,\ p=0.8,\ x\leq3$

Now, $P(x\leq3)=P(3)+P(2)+P(1)+P(0)$

$=^9C_3(0.8)^3(1-0.8)^{9-3}+^9C_2(0.8)^2(1-0.8)^{9-2}+^9C_1(0.8)^1(1-0.8)^{9-1}+^9C_0(0.8)^0(1-0.8)^9\\\\=\dfrac{9!}{3!6!}(0.8)^3(0.2)^6+\dfrac{9!}{2!7!}(0.8)^2(0.2)^7+\dfrac{9!}{1!8!}(0.8)(0.2)^8+\dfrac{9!}{0!9!}(0.2)^9=0.003066368\approx0.0031$

Hence, $P(x\leq3)=0.0031$

8 0

3 years ago

Please help me out solve it and tell me how you got that answer so I can understand please!

NikAS [45]

The solution for s in the given equation is $s = C-nD$

The question seems to be incomplete

Here is the complete question:

Solve for s in this equation $D= \frac{C-s}{n}$ Depreciation.

To solve for s, that means we should make s the subject of the equation

From the given equation,

$D= \frac{C-s}{n}$

To solve for s, first multiply both sides by n to clear the fraction

We get

$n\times D= n \times \frac{C-s}{n}$

Then,

$nD = C - s$

Now, add s to both sides

$nD + s= C - s+s$

$nD+s = C$

Then, subtract nD from both sides

$nD-nD+s = C-nD$

∴ $s = C-nD$

Hence, the solution for s in the given equation is $s = C-nD$

Learn more here: brainly.com/question/21406377

6 0

3 years ago

G. If two triangles have three corresponding angles and three corresponding sides that are

Alex777 [14]

Answer:

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes they are because that is the definition of congruency.

4 0

3 years ago

Dr.dillard has fifteen pounds of candy to share equally with 10 of the best behaved classes at nathan

frez [133]

Each best behaved class will receive 1.5 pounds of candy.
To get his answer you just have to divide 15 by 10
15 divided by 10 = 1.5 pounds

3 0

3 years ago

60 is what percent of 48?

Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

80%

Inverted = 125%

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify the fraction to the most simpliest number, which is 4/5. 4/5 = 80%.

If it’s inverted (as in 60/48), the most simpliest number is 5/4. 5/4 = 125%.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers