Answer:
Hi Ok So I might be wrong but Here is my answer
$1237.50
r = 4.5% = 0.045
I = prt
I = 5500*0.045*5
= $1237.50
Hope i helped pls mark me as brain list if I'm correct
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
x = 32°
Step-by-step explanation:
∆KLM is an isosceles triangle because it has two equal sides, KL & KM. Therefore, the angles opposite to each of the two equal sides, which are referred to as the base angles are congruent to each other.
m<KML = m<KLM = 58°
m<MKL = 180 - (58 + 58) (Sum of triangle)
m<MKL = 64°
m<JKM = 180 - m<MKL (linear pair theorem)
m<JKM = 180 - 64 (Substitution)
m<JKM = 116°
∆JKM is also an isosceles triangle with two equal sides. Therefore, it's based angles (x & <J) would also be equal to each other.
Thus:
x = ½(180 - m<JKM)
x = ½(180 - 116) (Substitution)
x = 32°
Answer:
a) 
b) ![P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[0.0211+0.0995+0.211]=0.668](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3D1-%5B0.0211%2B0.0995%2B0.211%5D%3D0.668)
c) 
Step-by-step explanation:
1) Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
2) Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
Part a
Part b
![P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3D1-%5BP%28X%3D0%29%2BP%28X%3D1%29%2BP%28X%3D2%29%5D)
Part c
The answer is a .. hope this helps .
Answer:Quadrilateral TRAP has an area that is one-fourth the area of quadrilateral HELP.
Step-by-step explanation: Because you rearrange the squares and it is 1/4
