1.) One-Fourth
2.) One Quarter
3.) Two- Eighth
I can't think of any more :[ Hope this helped!!
Answer:
2 one that's the right one
Answer:

If we find the individual probabilities we gotL

And replacing we got:
![P(X \geq 3) = 1- [0.0068 +0.0494 +0.1543]= 0.7895](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%5Cgeq%203%29%20%3D%201-%20%5B0.0068%20%2B0.0494%20%2B0.1543%5D%3D%200.7895)
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
For this case we want to find this probability:

And we can use the complement rule for this case:

If we find the individual probabilities we gotL

And replacing we got:
![P(X \geq 3) = 1- [0.0068 +0.0494 +0.1543]= 0.7895](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%5Cgeq%203%29%20%3D%201-%20%5B0.0068%20%2B0.0494%20%2B0.1543%5D%3D%200.7895)
your x value is your slope so the slope is 6 and your y intercept is the y value so your intercept is 3
hope this helps
Answer:
The answer is 1825.35
Step-by-step explanation:
Since the first week isn’t included, we only count 4 weeks.
So first, 2000 x 0.03 = 60
(By the way 0.03 is 3%)
2000 - 60 = 1940
Subtracting 2000 by 60 represents the amount of money the aquarium went down in that week.
Then, week 3:
1940 x 0.03 = 58.2
1940 - 58.2 = 1881.8
Now, the last week, week four:
1881.8 x 0.03 = 56.45
1881.8 - 56.45 = 1825.35.
Therefore, 1825.35 after 5 weeks.