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Brilliant_brown [7]
3 years ago
10

Rachel's Designs has 2,000 shares of 7%, $50 par value cumulative preferred stock issued at the beginning of 2019. All remaining

shares are common stock. Due to cash flow difficulties, the company was not able to pay dividends in 2019 or 2020. The company plans to pay total dividends of $23,000 in 2021. How much of the $23,000 dividend will be paid to preferred stockholders and how much will be paid to common stockholders?
Preferred dividends in arrears for 2019 and 2020?
Preferred dividends for 2021?
Total Dividends?
Business
1 answer:
pantera1 [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Dividend of preferred shares = No of shares * Dividend percent * Par value of shares = 2,000 * 7% * $50 = $7,000

Hence, dividend in arrears for the year 2019 and 2020 is $14,000 ($7,000+$7,000). Dividend for 2021 is $7,000

Description                                                                             Amount

Preferred dividend in arrear for the year 2019 and 2020  $14,000

Add: Preferred dividend for the year 2021                          <u>$7,000</u>

Total preferred dividend                                                       $21,000

Less: Total dividend                                                               <u>$23,000</u>

Dividend for common shareholder                                     (<u>$2,000)</u>

Hence, dividend paid for cumulative preferred share in the year 2021 is $21,000 and the amount paid for common shareholders is $2,000

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Answer:

$1,311,000

Explanation:

The computation of the operating cash flow is shown below:

As we know that

Operating cash flow = Cash flow from assets + capital spending - change in net working capital

where,

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Cashflow to Creditors = Interest paid - Change in long term debt

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Now  

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= $500,000 - (($500,000 + $3,500,000) - ($460,000 + $3,200,000))

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So,  

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Now  

Operating cashflow is

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= $1,311,000

7 0
3 years ago
A portfolio manager buys $1 million of U.S. Treasury bills maturing in 90 days at a price of $990,390 and discount rate of 3.8%.
ioda

Answer:

A. Outperforming the benchmark

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what the manager's portfolio

First step is to calculate the Treasury bill, bond-equivalent yield for U.S.

Using this formula

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=(Face value − Market value) / Market value × 365 / 90

Let plug in the formula

Treasury bill= ($1,000,000 − 990,390) / 990,390 × 365 / 90

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Treasury bill= 3.93%.

Second step is to calculate The total market value of the portfolio

Total market value portfolio=$990,390 + $100,000 + $200,000

Total market value portfolio= $1,290,390

Now let calculate the manager's portfolio

Manager's portfolio=3.93% ($990,390 / $1,290,390) + 4.34% ($100,000 / $1,290,390) + 4.84% ($200,000 / $1,290,390)

Manager's portfolio=3.93%(76.75%)+4.34%(7.75%)+4.84%(15.50%)

Manager's portfolio=0.0410*100

Manager's portfolio= 4.10%

Therefore Based on the above calculation the manager's portfolio is 4.10% OUTPERFORMING THE BENCHMARK because the manager's portfolio of 4.10% is higher than bond-equivalent yield benchmark portfolio of 4.0%.

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Assume that price level in the ABC Islands, a U.S. trading partner, increases signalling inflation in the economy. Using aggrega
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3 years ago
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Answer:

We take this as the correct option:

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Explanation:

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C 3,060,451

time 10

rate 0.07

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3 years ago
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