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3 years ago

Indicate the effect each separate transaction has on investing cash flows.

Business

1 answer:

Alina [70]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

a. Cash inflow of $9,000

b. Cash inflow of $6,000

c. Cash outflow of $16,500

Explanation:

The investing cash flow is a section of a company's cashflow statement. Other sections being the operating cash flow and the financing cash flow.

Considering the effect of the given transactions on the investing section

a. Sold a truck costing $42,500, with $23,000 of accumulated depreciation, for $9,000 cash. - The cash inflow of $9,000 is the only element that will impact the investing cash flow as an inflow.

b. The sale results in a $10,500 loss. Sold a machine costing $11,600, with $8,500 of accumulated depreciation, for $6,000 cash. - The cash inflow of $6,000 is the only element that will impact the investing cash flow as an inflow.

c. The sale results in a $2,900 gain. Purchased stock investments for $16,500 cash. The purchaser believes the stock is worth at least $31,000. - The amount used in the purchase of the stock $16,500 will be the only element impacting the investing cash flow and the impact is a reduction in cash - an outflow.

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Pompeii, Inc., has sales of $46,200, costs of $23,100, depreciation expense of $2,200, and interest expense of $1,700. If the ta

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Answer:

The net operating cashflows are 18,876 dollars.

Explanation:

Operating cashflows are cashflows which an entity generates from it core operations. In other words cash flow related to investment and finance activities do not form part of an entity operaing cashflows.

So in this example interest will not be part of operating cashflows.

For more details please refer to below given calculations.

OCF

Sales 46,200

Cost (23,100)

Tax (4,224) (W-1)

OCF 18,876

(W-1) Calculating profit to find tax paid

(46,200-23,100-2,200-1,700)*22%

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4 years ago

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4 years ago

3. Explain why price is equal to marginal revenue in pure competition but not in a monopoly. Include in your explanation why the

melisa1 [442]

Answer:

The answer is in a perfect competition profit is maximized when marginal cost equal marginal revenue and price is equal to average revenue and marginal revenue, while in monopolist profit is maximized when marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue.

Explanation:

The firm in a perfectly competitive market is a price taker,the price in the market is determined by the market forces of demand and supply. The firm has to sell their product at the ruling market price.The demand curve facing the firm in perfectly competitive market is horizontal or perfectly elastic, profit is therefore maximized when the marginal cost is equal to average revenue and marginal revenue. The firm in the market operate at the output level in which the price and marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost. Whatever prices that change the market demand or supply will change the demand curve faced by the firm.The firm cannot do anything to this than to accept the market price and the demand curve.

In a monopoly the demand curve is identical to the demand curve of the firm, because industry demand curve is downward sloping.The monopolist can either set the price or quantity not the two.when one is determined the value of the other will be determined by the demand function. The profit maximization of the monopolist also requires that marginal cost must be equal to marginal revenue just like in the case of perfect completion.when the monopolist equates MR and MC the monopolist determines its output and the market price for the product. The revenue curve is steeper than the demand curve,because the straight line is the market demand. The firm will have to reduce The price of the product if they want to sell more of their product the unit of the product sold is the AR which is equal to the price.Therefore the AR curve of the monopolist and the perfect competition MR and AR are both identical that informed the reason why the marginal revenue curve is steeper than the demand curve for a single price monopolist.

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3 years ago

American Exploration, Inc., a natural gas producer, is trying to decide whether to revise its target capital structure. Curren

Marat540 [252]

Answer:

a) 9.00 %

b) 7.80 %

c) yes the weight of the debt increases here is more risk in the investment as the debt payment are mandatory and failing to do so result in bankruptcy while the stock can wait to receive dividends if the income statement are good enough

d) 9.00 %

e) The increase in debt may lñead to an increase in return of the stockholders if they consider the stock riskier than before and will raise their return until the WACC equalize at the initial point beforethe trade-off occurs

Explanation:

$WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})$

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.5

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight = 0.5

$WACC = 0.12(0.5) + 0.06(0.5)$

WACC 9.00000%

$WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})$

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

$WACC = 0.12(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)$

WACC 7.80000%

$WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})$

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

$WACC = 0.16(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)$

WACC 9.00000%

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3 years ago

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Answer: The correct answer is "(A) Materiality.".

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3 years ago