Answer:
![\frac{2}{11}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B11%7D)
Step-by-step explanation:
First, find the probability of him pulling out a book.
There are 11 objects in total, and there are 4 books.
So, the probability of pulling out a book is ![\frac{4}{11}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B4%7D%7B11%7D)
Next, find the probability of him pulling out a DVD after.
Since a book was taken out, there are only 10 objects left. There are 5 DVDs.
So, the probability of pulling out a DVD is
, or simplified to ![\frac{1}{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D)
To find the probability that this happens in order, multiply the probabilities:
x ![\frac{1}{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D)
= ![\frac{2}{11}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B11%7D)
So, the probability is ![\frac{2}{11}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B11%7D)
Answer:
12 possibilities
Step-by-step explanation:
In the first urn, we have 4 balls, and all of them are different, as they have different labels, so the group of two red balls r1 and r2 is different from the group of red balls r2 and r3.
The same thing occurs in the second urn, as all balls have different labels.
The problem is a combination problem (the group r1 and r2 is the same group r2 and r1).
For the first urn, we have a combination of 4 choose 2:
C(4,2) = 4!/2!*2! = 4*3*2/2*2 = 2*3 = 6 possibilities
For the second urn, we also have a combination of 4 choose 2, so 6 possibilities.
In total we have 6 + 6 = 12 possibilities.
Answer:
Option D is correct.
Step-by-step explanation:
We can tell that
Now, let's simplify.
=> ![4x + 2 + \frac{4x-4}{2} = 180](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=4x%20%2B%202%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B4x-4%7D%7B2%7D%20%3D%20180)
=> ![4x + 2 + 2x-2 = 180](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=4x%20%2B%202%20%2B%202x-2%20%3D%20180)
=> ![4x + 2x = 180](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=4x%20%2B%202x%20%3D%20180)
=> ![6x = 180](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=6x%20%3D%20180)
=> ![x = 30](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%20%3D%2030)
Therefore, Option D is correct.
Hoped this helped.
Answer:
The ladder is 4.86 foot from the base of the wall .
Step-by-step explanation:
Given as :
The length of the ladder = 28 ft
The ladder makes angle of 80° with the ground
Let The distance of the ladder from the foot of the wall = x ft
Now, From Triangle BAC
Cos angle = ![\dfrac{\textrm Base}{\textrm Hypotenuse}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdfrac%7B%5Ctextrm%20Base%7D%7B%5Ctextrm%20Hypotenuse%7D)
I.e Cos 80° = ![\dfrac{\textrm BA}{\textrm AC}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdfrac%7B%5Ctextrm%20BA%7D%7B%5Ctextrm%20AC%7D)
Or, 0.1736 = ![\dfrac{\textrm x}{\textrm 28}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdfrac%7B%5Ctextrm%20x%7D%7B%5Ctextrm%2028%7D)
Or, x = 0.1736 × 28
∴ x = 4.86 foot
So, The distance of ladder from wall base = x = 4.86 foot
Hence The ladder is 4.86 foot from the base of the wall . Answer
I don't know I am sorry I could not help U