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Arte-miy333 [17]
4 years ago
14

NEED ANSWER IN LEAST THAN 3 Minutes

Mathematics
2 answers:
leonid [27]4 years ago
8 0
T<span>he next time all four supplies will arrive on the same day is in 24 weeks</span>
Anastasy [175]4 years ago
5 0
Shampoo: 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14 16, 18 , 20, 22, 24
nail polish: 4, 8, 12, 16, 20,. 24
combs: 8, 16, 24
hair dryers, 12, 24

 find the least common multiple of the weeks given, 2, 4, 8, 12

 the number is 24 so every 24 weeks 




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In this figure, AB || CD and m/2= 60°.<br> What is mZ6?
liubo4ka [24]

Answer:

The measure of \angle 6\ is\ 60\°.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

AB║CD  and

m∠2 = 60°

Solution,

Since, in the figure given in attachment line segment AB is parallel to line segment CD. And t is the transversal line.

The theorem of parallel lines states that,

"If two lines are parallel and cut by a transversal line then the pair of corresponding angles are congruent."

So according to the theorem of parallel lines,∠2 and ∠6 makes a pair of corresponding angle.

And the measure of corresponding angle is equal.

So, m∠2 = m∠6

\therefore m\angle 2 = m\angle 6 = 60\°

Thus the measure of \angle 6\ is\ 60\°.

5 0
3 years ago
0.08 is 10 times as great
Vlad [161]

Answer: 0.08 is 10 times as great as 0.008

Step-by-step explanation: 0.008 x 10 = 0.08

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Q6 Q15.) Which of the following four statements establishes the​ identity?
erastova [34]
A is incorrect. The identity is for the Sin( A - B). It is not for the Cos(A - B)

B is closer, but NOT the answer. The sign in the middle is incorrect, for one thing. For another Cos(pi/2) = 0,, so the answer would be cos(theta) using this formula.

C The sign is correct in C. The problem is that it is the wrong formula for Cos(theta - pi/2). C should go 
Cos(theta - pi/2) = cos(theta) cos(pi/2) + sin(theta)*sin(pi/2)

D. Looks like it's the correct answer. See the comment for C: The identity for C is actually correct for D.
Cos(theta)cos(pi/2) = 0 because cos(pi/2) =0
Sin(theta)*sin(pi/2) = Sin(theta) because Sin(pi/2) = 1

Answer D <<<<<< answer.


8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need help on my math homework could you help me with the answers please and if you do thank you
Natalija [7]
You can do this.
12 inches is 1 foot.
13 inches is 1'1"
14 inches is 1' 2" and so on.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How to round 5 2/9 x 9 3/5
aniked [119]

Answer:

50 2/15

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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