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Musya8 [376]
3 years ago
8

What two numbers multiply to give you -64 and add up to 0?

Mathematics
2 answers:
aksik [14]3 years ago
7 0
I think it’s Positive 5
igomit [66]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

-8*8

Step-by-step explanation:

-8*8=64

8-8=0

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5+5 divded by 6 multiplied by 100 divded by 25 +1000 - 3456 multiplied by 60 and divded by 23 = what
Paladinen [302]

Answer:-9,015.23 i think plz dont come at me if wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

5+5=10/6=1.6*100=166.6/(25+1000=1025)=0.16-3456=-3,455.84*60=-207,350.4/23=-9,015.23

3 0
3 years ago
What is 5/8 divided by 32
Citrus2011 [14]
First you need to convert 32 into a fraction, so just add 1 as the denominator; 5/8 ÷ 32/1. But you can't divide fractions, so multiply by the reciprocal. 5/8 · 1/32. You should get 5/256 as your answer. I hope that helped!
7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!
Fed [463]

Not sure for (b)

Step-by-step explanation:

(a)55+80+x=180 (angles inside the triangle)

135+×=+180

x=180-135

x=45

8 0
2 years ago
3. If ‘A’ can finish a work in ‘n’ days then part of work finished in 1 day is: (a) 1 – n
zaharov [31]

Answer:

If ‘A’ can finish a work in ‘n’ days then part of work finished in 1 day

will be \frac{1}{n}.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question, it is clear that

  • If ‘A’ can finish a work in ‘n’ days, then
  • we have to determine the part of work finished in 1 day.

So

let 'n' be the number of days A takes to complete the whole work

Let the whole job be denoted as '1'

Thus, the part of work finished in 1 day will be:

                      \:\frac{Total\:work}{Time\:taken\:by\:A\:to\:complete\:the\:work}\:=\frac{1}{n}

Therefore, If ‘A’ can finish a work in ‘n’ days then part of work finished in 1 day will be \frac{1}{n}.

                             

Keywords: work, word problem

Learn more about word problem form brainly.com/question/12419898

#learnwithBrainly

3 0
3 years ago
What is the correct solution set for the following graph?
nalin [4]
Point in quadrqnt 111
4 0
3 years ago
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