Answer:
If a company increases its final goods inventory level, that will increase the country's GDP even if the goods are not sold during the current period (they will be sold in future periods). Increases in inventory level are considered part of Investment component of the GDP.
If the inventories are not sold during the year (2018) and if they continue to be unsold during part of 2019, that will negatively affect the GDP because fewer goods will be purchased to replenish these inventories and the market price of the goods will also decrease. The market price of goods is determined by the supply and demand. If the supply is much higher than the demand and inventories start to pile up, their price will decrease in order to increase the quantity demanded. If the volume of the goods in inventory is significant enough, this should lower the inflation rate.
Answer:
The correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
Explanation:
A triangular arbitrage can be described as the act of taking advantage of a foreign exchange market arbitrage opportunity created by a pricing difference between three different currencies.
A triangle arbitrage method entails three deals, with the first currency being converted to a second, the second currency being converted to a third, and the third currency being converted to the first.
In the question, USD is the first currency, GBP is the second currency, and CHF is the third currency. Based on the explanation above, the three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert <u>USD to GBP</u>; second step, convert <u>GBP to CHF</u>, and third step, convert <u>CHF to USD</u>.
Therefore, the correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
For the answer to the question above, I think the answer is that
<u><em>petra's lien on the machine will terminate if and only </em></u><span><u><em>if Petra would voluntarily surrender possession.</em></u></span>
I hope my answer helped you. Have a nice day!
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Defragmentation Preventive maintenance
Hope this helped
Answer:
Premium = $5.76 -$5.51 = 0.25
Percentage of premium = 0.25/5.76 x 100
= 4.34% premium
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
This is an indirect quote in which dollar is fixed and shekels is variable. In order to obtain the 180-day forward rate, premium of $0.25 has been deducted. In indirect quote, premium is deducted from the spot rate in order to determine the forward rate ie $5.76 - $0.25 = $5.51. The percentage of premium is calculated as premium divided by spot rate multiplied by 100.
