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denpristay [2]
3 years ago
10

What is the intermediate step in the form (x+a)^2 = b as a result of completing the square for the following equation?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Pepsi [2]3 years ago
7 0

Assuming you are speaking of the Real Numbers…

x^2+66=14x+15

x^2 - 14x + ?? = -51

x^2 - 14x + (half of -14 squared) = -51 + (half of -14 squared)

x^2 - 14x + 49 = -51 + 49

(x - 7)^2 = -2

By the way, in the real number system, you can’t square any number and get a negative so the above equation has no solution. If you allowed for complex solutions…there would be two of those.

lawyer [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Sorry don't know the answer.

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Pi is actually one of the letters of the Greek alphabet, but it is most known in the math field as the ratio between the circumference of a circle and the circle's diameter.

There is no exact measure of pi, as it does not terminate but it starts like:

3.14159265

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A= 12b1+b2h ; solve for b1
slega [8]

Answer:

b1 = 0, b2 = 0

EXPLICACION

A = 12 b1 + b2 h

A - 12 b1 - b2 h = 0

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3 years ago
I want to know the answer to an increase of 1.6% of $1252.00
Morgarella [4.7K]
It’s easy!
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Answer:

615.75216 ft

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8 0
2 years ago
16. A telemarketer makes six phone calls per hour and is able to make a sale on 30% of these contacts. During the next two hours
Reika [66]

Answer:

a) 23.11% probability of making exactly four sales.

b) 1.38% probability of making no sales.

c) 16.78% probability of making exactly two sales.

d) The mean number of sales in the two-hour period is 3.6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each phone call, there are only two possible outcomes. Either a sale is made, or it is not. The probability of a sale being made in a call is independent from other calls. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A telemarketer makes six phone calls per hour and is able to make a sale on 30% of these contacts. During the next two hours, find:

Six calls per hour, 2 hours. So

n = 2*6 = 12

Sale on 30% of these calls, so p = 0.3

a. The probability of making exactly four sales.

This is P(X = 4).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 4) = C_{12,4}.(0.3)^{4}.(0.7)^{8} = 0.2311

23.11% probability of making exactly four sales.

b. The probability of making no sales.

This is P(X = 0).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138

1.38% probability of making no sales.

c. The probability of making exactly two sales.

This is P(X = 2).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678

16.78% probability of making exactly two sales.

d. The mean number of sales in the two-hour period.

The mean of the binomia distribution is

E(X) = np

So

E(X) = 12*0.3 = 3.6

The mean number of sales in the two-hour period is 3.6.

4 0
3 years ago
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