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Mice21 [21]
3 years ago
11

Why is 2/10 equivalent to 1/5?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Keith_Richards [23]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

If you divide both top and bottom of \frac{2}{10} by 2, you get \frac{1}{5}

Alenkinab [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

because you have to find common denominators

2/10= 1/5

2/10= 1x2/5x2

Whatever you do to the bottom, you do to the top so that is why i also multiplied the numerator by 2.

2/10=2/10

Hope it helped!! Pls mark brainliest :)) Have a good day

Step-by-step explanation:

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Read 2 more answers
HELP ME PLEASE. Anson borrows some money from a bank at a rate of 10% simple interest for 1 year. Jenny borrows $1000 more then
kondaur [170]
$5000 is the correct answer.

The formula for simple interest is I=prt.  Anson gets 10% interest; 10% = 10/100 = 0.1.  This gives us
I=p(0.1)(1) = 0.1p.

Jenny borrows 1000 more than Anson, so her principal is p+1000.  Her rate is 8%; 8%=8/100 = 0.08.  She invests it for half of a year, or 0.5. Together this gives us:
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Divide both sides by 0.14:
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3 years ago
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