Answer: 1,045 passengers
Step-by-step explanation:
This question involves multiple steps. Let's first try to figure the number of children on the cruise.
The ratio of girls to the total number of children was 2:5. There are 198 boys.
This information tells me that for every 5 children, there's 2 girls and 3 boys.
Based off of this information, we can divide the total number of boys by 3 in order to find the number of children.
198÷3=66
Let's multiply 66 by 5 since that's the number of groupings based off the ratio.
66×5=330
Let's check the number of children. Since the ratio of girls to total children is 2:5 and we already confirmed there's 198 boys, there should be 132 girls. We can turn this ratio into a fraction where 2/5 of the children are girls. we can confirm this by multiply 330 by 2/5 (0.4) and getting 132.
There are 330 children on the cruise.
The ratio of the number of adults to the number of children was 13:6.
For every 6 children, there were 13 adults. Let's divide the number of children by 6 in order to find the number of groupings.
330÷6=55
Let's now multiply the groupings by 13 to find the number of adults.
55×13=715
So there should be 715 adults and 330 children on the cruise.
715+330=1,045
Answer:
d)X=4 or x=-2
Step-by-step explanation:
X²-2x=8
X²-2x-8=0
(x-4)(x+2)=0
X-4=0 or x+2=0
X=4 or x=-2
Answer:
see explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
(1)
(a)
sin(a) = 
= 
(b)
cos(a) = 
= 
(c)
tan(a) = 
= 
----------------------------------------------------
(2)
(a)
sin(b) = =
(b)
cos(b) = =
(c)
tan(b) = = 
Answer:
We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.
We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.
Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.
Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have 
number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.
Answer:
if the shown formula is correct/complete,
f(3−π) would equal just 3−π, or about -0.14159
