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erica [24]
3 years ago
14

Under the concepts of the time value of money, you can determine the current, or present, value of a cash receipt or payment tha

t will occur at some specified time in the future, given a specified rate of interest. This technique can be used to calculate the present value of a single or a series of future receipts or payments. Abigail and Caleb are walking after class between the library and the best pizzeria near campus. They’re discussing Dr. Johnson’s latest financial management lecture, which addressed the concept of present value and the process for calculating it. In anticipation of tomorrow’s quiz, they’ve decided to review their lecture notes and the textbook materials and then practice one or two problems. Complete the missing information in the conversation that follows. CALEB: So, what is a present value, and why is it important to be able to calculate it? ABIGAIL: According to Dr. Johnson, an asset’s present or value is the current value of the cash flows that it will pay or receive in the future.
Business
1 answer:
Svetradugi [14.3K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Discounted value

Explanation:

From Abigail's speech, the present value or the discounted value of an asset is the current value of the cash flows which are to be paid or gotten at a date in the future.

The reason discounted is the answer is because cash flows in the future have to be brought to a date in the present. Instead of compounding, it is better to discount since compounding raises present value when placed side by side with future value.

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The point when the company makes exactly enough money to pay for itself, without making extra as a profit is the C. Break even point

hope this helps
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why has caricom produced limited improvements in interregional trade??
Kobotan [32]

CARICOM or the <span>Caribbean Community and Common Market solely reason for existence is to promote the economic integration to guarantee the benefits and shared equitably. The mainly cause for CARICOM in producing limited improvements is because majority of the English speaking  country illustrates the division </span><span>deep linguistic in Caribbean </span>

3 0
3 years ago
The Federal Reserve System and the New York Stock Exchange regulations currently require the short seller to have an initial mar
lutik1710 [3]

Answer:

Correct answer is 50%

Explanation:

The appropriate response is half.  

The Regulation T of the Federal Reserve Board requires the equalization for all short deal records to be at any rate 150% of the estimation of the protections at the time the deal is started.  

This implies when the short deal is started, as we are selling the offers first, our record will have the 100% estimation of the offers sold (as we receipts of cash from selling) in addition to an extra edge prerequisite of half of the estimation of the short deal.  

For instance, on the off chance that I am short selling an offer whose cost is $100, at that point when I short sell the offer, my record equalization will become $100, as receipts of the deal.  

Along these lines, at the hour of inception of offer, my record equalization ought to be 150% of the estimation of short deal = 150% of $100 = $150. The separation of this sum is  

100% of $100 = $100, which gets credited to my record  

in addition half of $100 = $50, which is the edge necessity at the inception of short deal.  

In this way, Initial edge necessity is atleast half of the cost of the stock.  

The student ought not befuddle the underlying edge necessity with the base upkeep edge.  

The base support edge required to be kept up is 25%. This implies the short dealer ought to consistently have an edge (not balance) of 25% in the record. In the event that the edge goes beneath 25%, at that point the edge require the distinction sum is actuated, which the short dealer is required to pay to keep on keeping her situation in the market unaltered.  

Be that as it may, beginning edge required to be kept up is half.

8 0
3 years ago
Bond A pays $4,000 in 14 years. Bond B pays $4,000 in 28 years. (To keep things simple, assume these are zero-coupon bonds, whic
Arlecino [84]

Answer and Explanation:

Given that Bond A pays $4,000 in 14 years and Bond B pays $4,000 in 28 years, and that the interest rate is 5 percent, we see that Using the rule of 70, the value of Bond A is 70/5 = doubled after 14 years. Now if its value is 4000 in 14 years, its current value must be halved. Hence the value is 2000.

Sinilarly the value of Bond B is approximately one fourth now because it pays 4000 in 28 years. Hence its value is 4000/4 = 1000.

Now suppose the interest rate increases to 10 percent. Hence the doubling time is 70/10 = 7 years

Using the rule of 70, the value of Bond A is now approximately 1,000 and the value of Bond B is 250

Comparing each bond’s value at 5 percent versus 10 percent, Bond A’s value decreases by a smaller percentage than Bond B’s value.

The value of a bond falls when the interest rate increases, and bonds with a longer time to maturity are more sensitive to changes in the interest rate.

8 0
3 years ago
The loan-to-value ratio is 80%. a buyer wants to acquire a property with a purchase price of $116,000. calculate the required do
blondinia [14]
116,000 divided by 80% is $145,000
6 0
3 years ago
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