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Shkiper50 [21]
3 years ago
8

I want the answer please!!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ira Lisetskai [31]3 years ago
7 0
The second choice i is the answer
erastova [34]3 years ago
3 0

the second choice

the third choice

the fifth choice

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The graphs shows the relationship between the number of bags of wild rice in a restaurant and the total number of pounds of wild
irinina [24]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:is the divide by 7×10=70is

6 0
3 years ago
If 8% of all cell phones are defective, and you have a random sample group of 100 Samsung Galaxy Vills,
Sati [7]

Answer:

Mean = 8

Variance = 7.36

Standard Deviation = 2.7129

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution with parameters, n and p.

Where

n is sample size (given as 100)

p is the probability of success, or probability of defective (given as 8% or 0.08)

The mean, variance, standard deviation formula for binomial distribution is shown below:

Mean = np

Variance = npq

Standard Deviation = \sqrt{npq}

Where q would be probability of failure, or "1 - p"

Thus,

n = 100

p = 0.08

q = 1 - 0.08 = 0.92

SO, we have:

Mean = np=100*0.08=8

Variance = npq=100*0.08*0.92 = 7.36

Standard Deviation = \sqrt{npq}=\sqrt{7.36}=2.7129

5 0
3 years ago
Rewrite 1 11/25 and 3 3/8 as a square or cube.<br><br> PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE HALLLLLPP, looool
GrogVix [38]

1 11/25

= 36/25 = (6/5)^2

and  

3 3/8

= 27/8 = (3/2)^3

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3 years ago
Find the product. 4x - 3y(-2x 2y)
liubo4ka [24]
(4x + 3y)² = 

<span>(4x)² + 2 (4x) (3y) + (3y)² = </span>

<span>16x² + 24xy + 9y²</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
F(x)=tan(x)
AleksAgata [21]
<span>Tan(x) = sin(x) / cos(x). Therefore, tan(x) pi/2 = 1/0, which doesn't exist. Imagine that, instead of 0, it's a number incredibly close to 0. The smaller the number in the denominator, the bigger the outcome. Therefore, we can think of 1/0 as infinity, or approaching infinity as one gets closer to 1/0. This is the same result approaching from the negative side, only it's negative infinity. If x=0, it's 0/1 instead (sin 0=0, cos 0=1). Anything divided by 1 is itself, so as x approaches 0, so does f(x).</span>
7 0
3 years ago
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