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ale4655 [162]
3 years ago
7

Someone please help‍♀️

Mathematics
1 answer:
andrew11 [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D. y=-1/5(x)

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the equation of a line, use the formula y=mx+b, where x and y represent your x and y coordinates, m is your slope and b is your y-intercept.

b is you y-intercept, this is where the line cuts the y-axis. We can see from the graph that the line cuts the y-axis at (0,0), so c=0.

Now we have y=mx

Sub in one of our points (10,-2):

-2=m10

m=-1/5

So our equation looks like this:

y=-1/5(x)

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If 1 ounce=28.35 grams, how many grams are in one pound?
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In a study of 420,095 Danish cell phone users, 135 subjects developed cancer of the brain or nervous system (based on data from
Maksim231197 [3]

Answer:

z=\frac{0.0003214 -0.00034}{\sqrt{\frac{0.00034(1-0.00034)}{420095}}}=-0.654  

p_v =2*P(Z  

So the p value obtained was a very high value and using the significance level given \alpha=0.005 we have p_v>\alpha so we can conclude that we have enough evidence to FAIL to reject the null hypothesis, and we can say that the true proportion not differs significantly from the specified value of 0.00034 or 0.034%.

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Data given and notation  

n=420095 represent the random sample taken

X=135 represent the subjects developed cancer of the brain or nervous system (based on data from the Journal of the National Cancer Institute as reported in USA Today)

\hat p=\frac{135}{420095}=0.0003214 estimated proportion of subjects developed cancer of the brain or nervous system (based on data from the Journal of the National Cancer Institute as reported in USA Today)

p_o=0.00034 is the value that we want to test

\alpha=0.005 represent the significance level

Confidence=99.5% or 0.995

z would represent the statistic (variable of interest)

p_v represent the p value (variable of interest)  

2) Concepts and formulas to use  

We need to conduct a hypothesis in order to test the claim that the brain or nervous system at a rate that is different from the rate of 0.0340% :  

Null hypothesis:p=0.00034  

Alternative hypothesis:p \neq 0.00034  

When we conduct a proportion test we need to use the z statistic, and the is given by:  

z=\frac{\hat p -p_o}{\sqrt{\frac{p_o (1-p_o)}{n}}} (1)  

The One-Sample Proportion Test is used to assess whether a population proportion \hat p is significantly different from a hypothesized value p_o.

3) Calculate the statistic  

Since we have all the info requires we can replace in formula (1) like this:  

z=\frac{0.0003214 -0.00034}{\sqrt{\frac{0.00034(1-0.00034)}{420095}}}=-0.654  

4) Statistical decision  

It's important to refresh the p value method or p value approach . "This method is about determining "likely" or "unlikely" by determining the probability assuming the null hypothesis were true of observing a more extreme test statistic in the direction of the alternative hypothesis than the one observed". Or in other words is just a method to have an statistical decision to fail to reject or reject the null hypothesis.  

The significance level provided \alpha=0.005. The next step would be calculate the p value for this test.  

Since is a bilateral test the p value would be:  

p_v =2*P(Z  

So the p value obtained was a very high value and using the significance level given \alpha=0.005 we have p_v>\alpha so we can conclude that we have enough evidence to FAIL to reject the null hypothesis, and we can say that the true proportion not differs significantly from the specified value of 0.00034 or 0.034%.  

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3 years ago
A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a
Ronch [10]

Answer:

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

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P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

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This means that n = 12

She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.3

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2 or less sold, which is:

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

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P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{11} = 0.0712

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678

Then

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0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

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AleksAgata [21]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

There is a box function plotted on the graph.

The function is  g(x) = –⌊x⌋ + 3.

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It is given that the left-most segment of the given graph goes from (-2,5) to (-1,5) and the rightmost segment goes from (4,-1) to (5,-1).

So, for the left most segment the domain is -2 ≤ x < -1

And for the right most segment the domain is  4 ≤ x < 5  

Therefore, the total domain of g(x) will be  {x| –2 ≤ x < 5} (Answer)

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