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Vadim26 [7]
3 years ago
6

How to cheat vhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh

Physics
2 answers:
Marrrta [24]3 years ago
6 0
How to cheat? i’m confused
Rashid [163]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

No cheat, cheating bad

Explanation:

no no no

You might be interested in
An electron moving to the left at 0.8c collides with a photon moving to the right. After the collision, the electron is moving t
SVETLANKA909090 [29]

Answer:

Wavelength = 2.91 x 10⁻¹² m, Energy = 6.8 x 10⁻¹⁴

Explanation:

In order to show that a free electron can’t completely absorb a photon, the equation for relativistic energy and momentum will be needed, along the equation for the energy and momentum of a photon. The conservation of energy and momentum will also be used.

E = y(u) mc²

Here c is the speed of light in vacuum and y(u) is the Lorentz factor

y(u) = 1/√[1-(u/c)²], where u is the velocity of the particle

The relativistic momentum p of an object of mass m and velocity u is given by

p = y(u)mu

Here y(u) being the Lorentz factor

The energy E of a photon of wavelength λ is

E = hc/λ, where h is the Planck’s constant 6.6 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s and c being the speed of light in vacuum 3 x 108m/s

The momentum p of a photon of wavelenght λ is,

P = h/λ

If the electron is moving, it will start the interaction with some momentum and energy already. Momentum of the electron and photon in the initial and final state is

p(pi) + p(ei) = p(pf) + p(ef), equation 1, where p refers to momentum and the e and p in the brackets refer to proton and electron respectively

The momentum of the photon in the initial state is,

p(pi) = h/λ(i)

The momentum of the electron in the initial state is,

p(ei) = y(i)mu(i)

The momentum of the electron in the final state is

p(ef) = y(f)mu(f)

Since the electron starts off going in the negative direction, that momentum will be negative, along with the photon’s momentum after the collision

Rearranging the equation 1 , we get

p(pi) – p(ei) = -p(pf) +p(ef)

Substitute h/λ(i) for p(pi) , h/λ(f) for p(pf) , y(i)mu(i) for p(ei), y(f)mu(f) for p(ef) in the equation 1 and solve

h/λ(i) – y(i)mu(i) = -h/λ(f) – y(f)mu(f), equation 2

Next write out the energy conservation equation and expand it

E(pi) + E(ei) = E(pf) + E(ei)

Kinetic energy of the electron and photon in the initial state is

E(p) + E(ei) = E(ef), equation 3

The energy of the electron in the initial state is

E(pi) = hc/λ(i)

The energy of the electron in the final state is

E(pf) = hc/λ(f)

Energy of the photon in the initial state is

E(ei) = y(i)mc2, where y(i) is the frequency of the photon int the initial state

Energy of the electron in the final state is

E(ef) = y(f)mc2

Substitute hc/λ(i) for E(pi), hc/λ(f) for E(pf), y(i)mc² for E(ei) and y(f)mc² for E(ef) in equation 3

Hc/λ(i) + y(i)mc² = hc/λ(f) + y(f)mc², equation 4

Solve the equation for h/λ(f)

h/λ(i) + y(i)mc = h/λ(f) + y(f)mc

h/λ(f) = h/lmda(i) + (y(i) – y(f)c)m

Substitute h/λ(i) + (y(i) – y(f)c)m for h/λ(f)  in equation 2 and solve

h/λ(i) -y(i)mu(i) = -h/λ(f) + y(f)mu(f)

h/λ(i) -y(i)mu(i) = -h/λ(i) + (y(f) – y(i))mc + y(f)mu(f)

Rearrange to get all λ(i) terms on one side, we get

2h/λ(i) = m[y(i)u(i) +y(f)u(f) + (y(f) – y(i)c)]

λ(i) = 2h/[m{y(i)u(i) + y(f)u(f) + (y(f) – y(i))c}]

λ(i) = 2h/[m.c{y(i)(u(i)/c) + y(f)(u(f)/c) + (y(f) – y(i))}]

Calculate the Lorentz factor using u(i) = 0.8c for y(i) and u(i) = 0.6c for y(f)

y(i) = 1/[√[1 – (0.8c/c)²] = 5/3

y(f) = 1/√[1 – (0.6c/c)²] = 1.25

Substitute 6.63 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s for h, 0.511eV/c2 = 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg for m, 5/3 for y(i), 0.8c for u(i), 1.25 for y(f), 0.6c for u(f), and 3 x 10⁸ m/s for c in the equation derived for λ(i)

λ(i) = 2h/[m.c{y(i)(u(i)/c) + y(f)(u(f)/c) + (y(f) – y(i))}]

λ(i) = 2(6.63 x 10-34)/[(9.11 x 10-31)(3 x 108){(5/3)(0.8) + (1.25)(0.6) + ((1.25) – (5/3))}]

λ(i) = 2.91 x 10⁻¹² m

So, the initial wavelength of the photon was 2.91 x 10-12 m

Energy of the incoming photon is

E(pi) = hc/λ(i)

E(pi) = (6.63 x 10⁻³⁴)(3 x 10⁸)/(2.911 x 10⁻¹²) = 6.833 x 10⁻¹⁴ = 6.8 x 10⁻¹⁴

So the energy of the photon is 6.8 x 10⁻¹⁴ J

6 0
3 years ago
Match these items. 1. Ca 6 proton 2. H 2O 3 fission 3. nuclear decay 7 element 4. nuclear synthesis 8 electron 5. η atomic numbe
Gnesinka [82]

1. Ca → Element

2. Proton → positive

3. H2O → compound

4. Fission → nuclear decay

5. Fusion → Nuclear synthesis

6. η → Neutron

7. e → electron

8. Atomic number → no of protons in nucleus.

Explanation

1. Ca (Calcium):

Calcium is an element with the atomic number of 20. It is an alkaline earth metal. The 99% of calcium is found in our bodies, in bones, teeth.

2. Proton:

Proton is a subatomic particle and it holds the positive charge. Proton is present in the nucleus of the atom.

3. H2O (water):

Water is a chemical compound and it's chemical formula is H2O. It's called compound as it contains 2 hydrogen and 1 oxygen atoms bonded together through the covalent bond.

4. Fission:

Fission is a process in which large massive unstable nucleus splits into the smaller, less heavier and stable nuclei. The energy is re;eased in the form of radiations during this process. It's called as the radioactive decay.

5. Fusion:

Fusion is opposite of the fission reaction. As in this case the two nuclei combines to form a single large nucleus. That's why it is a nuclear synthesis process.

6. η neutron:

Neutron is a subatomic particle and it is a neutral particle which is located inside the nucleus. n is a symbol used for the neutron.

7. e Electron:

The symbol for electron is e. It's a subatomic particle with negative charge. It is found in the orbits around the nucleus.

8.  Atomic Number:

Atomic number is defined as the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom. IT is represented by Z.

6 0
3 years ago
a water-balloon launcher with mass 4 kg fires a 0.5 kg balloon with a velocity of 3 m/s to the east. what is the recoil velocity
kotykmax [81]
I think we will use the law of conservation of linear momentum;
M1V1 = M2V2
M1 =  4 kg (mass of the water balloon launcher)
V1=?
M2= 0.5 kg ( mass of the balloon)
V2 = 3 m/s

Therefore; 4 V1 = 0.5 × 3
                   4V1= 1.5
                     V1= 1.5/4
                          = 0.375 m/s










5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose you wanted to break a meter stick over your knee. The cross-section of a meter stick is rectangular. Will it be easier t
LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

It will be easier to break the meter rule with the long side against my knee.

Explanation:

To break the meter rule involves the principle of bending moment. The long side will require less force to generate the same amount of bending moment that will have to be generated to break the meter rule. The short side on the other hand will require more force to generate this mount of bending moment. This is because the shorter has a very small surface area, which concentrates the force on your knee. The pressure is then dissipated as more pressure to your knee. Th longer side has a lesser surface area so, most of the force is used in breaking the meter rule.  

6 0
3 years ago
¿Por qué en algunas partes el agua tiene mayor presión?
Phantasy [73]
Cuando la presión aumenta en el agua, disminuye el punto de fusión del hielo. Ósea esta a temperatura muy alta.


Espero que esto te ayude y no me haya confundido
7 0
3 years ago
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