$\bf \textit{Pythagorean Identities} \\\\ sin^2(\theta)+cos^2(\theta)=1\implies cos^2(\theta)=1-sin^2(\theta) \\\\[-0.35em] \rule{34em}{0.25pt}\\\\ \cfrac{csc(\theta )-sin(\theta )}{cos(\theta )}\implies \cfrac{~~\frac{1}{sin(\theta )}-sin(\theta )~~}{cos(\theta )}\implies \cfrac{~~\frac{1-sin^2(\theta )}{sin(\theta )}~~}{cos(\theta )}$

$\bf \cfrac{1-sin^2(\theta )}{sin(\theta )}\cdot \cfrac{1}{cos(\theta )}\implies \cfrac{\stackrel{cos(\theta )}{\begin{matrix} cos^2(\theta ) \\[-0.7em]\cline{1-1}\\[-5pt]\end{matrix}} }{sin(\theta )}\cdot \cfrac{1}{\begin{matrix} cos(\theta ) \\[-0.7em]\cline{1-1}\\[-5pt]\end{matrix} }\implies \cfrac{cos(\theta )}{sin(\theta )}\implies cot(\theta )$

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is equivalent to k/2

Mazyrski [523]

Answer:

k x 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

because k x 1/2 = k/2

8 0

2 years ago

Which fraction expresses 36/80 in lowest terms? A. 9/20 B. 18/40 C.4/5 D. 18/20

jenyasd209 [6]

To solve this problem, we need to factor 36 and 80, then find greatest common factor, and divide numerator and denominator by this greatest common factor.
36/80 = (4*9)/(4*20)= 9/20

Answer A. 9/20.

6 0

3 years ago