Answer:
...
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
see explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
The meaning of n factorial → n !
n ! = n(n - 1)(n - 2)........ × 3 × 2 × 1
For example
7 !
= 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1
Split up the interval [2, 5] into

equally spaced subintervals, then consider the value of

at the right endpoint of each subinterval.
The length of the interval is

, so the length of each subinterval would be

. This means the first rectangle's height would be taken to be

when

, so that the height is

, and its base would have length

. So the area under

over the first subinterval is

.
Continuing in this fashion, the area under

over the

th subinterval is approximated by

, and so the Riemann approximation to the definite integral is

and its value is given exactly by taking

. So the answer is D (and the value of the integral is exactly 39).
Answer:
2 x y^2 (x y - 1) (x y - 3)
Step-by-step explanation:
2x^3y^4-8x^2y^3+6xy^2
each term contains 2xy^2 so factor that out
2xy^2(x^2y^2 -4xy+3)
then lets factor the inside
what terms multiply together to give us +3 and add to -4
-3* -1 = 3 -3+-1 =-4
2 x y^2 (x y - 1) (x y - 3)
Answer:
..............
...............
Step-by-step explanation: