The treaty made no direct references to international trade can be d answer
Pretty sure your answer is B. They didn't get equal rights until the 60's, I don't believe they were removed from jobs, and I'm fairly certain they wouldn't have done work without pay (The Great Migration is a good example of that).
I think it was 1865 which is d pls give me brainliest answer
The American colonists were justified in doing this simply because their colonies had become too big and too important to be treated as a colony by the British. The British should have given the colonies some autonomy, but they did not. The analogy I like to use is that of teens and their parents. Parents have to give teens more independence as they grow up. If they do not, the teens may justifiably rebel.
The British were not, on the whole, brutal or oppressive towards the colonists. However, they would not let the colonists have much in the way of self-rule. This had been fine when the colonies were still small and economically weak. By the 1760s and 1770s, however, the colonies were "teenagers." They were big and strong enough to expect some autonomy. When Britain reacted to requests for autonomy by being more strict, the colonists were justified in rebelling.
