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1 answer:
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Answer:
e. No, the p-value is greater than 0.01, so there is insufficient evidence at the 0.01 level to conclude that pain levels are lower after hypnotism.
Step-by-step explanation:
Hello!
The study's objective is to test if hypnotism reduces pain.
A sample of n=8 subjects was taken and the pain level was recorded in each subject before and after being hypnotized.
The variable of interest was determined by calculating the difference of pain level after - before hypnosis. This is a paired sample test and the variable can be determined as:
Xd: Difference between pain level felt after hypnosis and pain level felt before hypnosis of a subject.
The sample average and standard deviation obtained were:
Xd= -3
Sd= 3
And the variable is presumed to be approximately normal.
An approximately normal distribution is enough to conduct a paired sample t-test.
If the claim is that hypnosis reduces pain, then the average pain level after hypnosis should be less than the average pain level before hypnosis, then the average difference is expected to be negative, symbolically: μd < 0
The test will be one-tailed and so will be the p-value.
Remember: The p-value is defined as the probability corresponding to the calculated statistic if possible under the null hypothesis (i.e. the probability of obtaining a value as extreme as the value of the statistic under the null hypothesis).
So first step is to calculate the value of the statistic under the null hypothesis and then you can calculate the p-value.
H₀: μd ≥ 0
H₁: μd < 0
The DF of the t-test are n-1= 7
Then you can calculate the p-value as:
P(t₇≤-2.83)= 0.0127
The level of the test is α: 0.01
The decision rule is:
If p-value ≤ α, reject the null hypothesis.
If p-value > α, do not reject the null hypothesis.
The p-value > α the decision is to not reject the null hypothesis.
Correct option: e. No, the p-value is greater than 0.01, so there is insufficient evidence at the 0.01 level to conclude that pain levels are lower after hypnotism.
I hope this helps!
Answer:
4 ft.
Step-by-step explanation:
We can consider the orignial square's sides to be x, so area of the original figure:
The new rectangle's sides will be x and x+8, so the area of the new figure will be x^2+8x.
We know that the new area is 3 times the old one. So our equation will be:
x^2+8x=3x^2
our answer will be x=4.
Therfore, the length of the side of the old flower bed is 4 ft.
Answer:
1436.8cm³
Step-by-step explanation:
Formula :
=1436.75504cm³
to 1dp
=1436.8cm³