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Andrei [34K]
3 years ago
11

Can we say ((-16)÷4) ÷ (-2) is the same as (-16)÷ (4÷(-2)?​

Mathematics
2 answers:
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]3 years ago
7 0

\longrightarrow{\blue{[( - 16)\div 4) \div ( - 2)] \:is\:not\:equal\:to\:( - 16) \div [4 \div( - 2) ]   }} 

\large\mathfrak{{\pmb{\underline{\orange{Step-by-step\:explanation}}{\orange{:}}}}}

[( - 16 )\div 4) \div ( - 2)] = ( - 16) \div [4 \div( - 2) ]

Let us first solve for L. H. S.

= [( - 16 )\div 4) \div ( - 2)]

= [ (\frac{ - 16}{4}  )\div ( - 2)]

=  \frac{( - 4)}{( - 2)}

= 2

Now, R. H S.

( - 16) \div [4 \div ( - 2)]

=  \frac{ - 16}{ - 2}

= 8

\sf\purple{L. H. S.\: ≠ \:R. H. S. }

Hence, [( - 16) \div 4) \div( - 2)] ≠(-16)\div [4 \div( - 2) ]

\red{\large\qquad \qquad \underline{ \pmb{{ \mathbb{ \maltese \: \: Mystique35♛}}}}}

vlada-n [284]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

no we can't

Step-by-step explanation:

(-4)÷(-2). (-16÷(-2)

2. 8

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