I don't usually do calculus on Brainly and I'm pretty rusty but this looked interesting.
We have to turn K into the limits of integration on our integrals.
Clearly 0 is the lower limit for all three of x, y and z.
Now we have to incorporate
x+y+z ≤ 1
Let's do the outer integral over x. It can go the full range from 0 to 1 without violating the constraint. So the upper limit on the outer integral is 1.
Next integral is over y. y ≤ 1-x-z. We haven't worried about z yet; we have to conservatively consider it zero here for the full range of y. So the upper limit on the middle integration is 1-x, the maximum possible value of y given x.
Similarly the inner integral goes from z=0 to z=1-x-y
We've transformed our integral into the more tractable

For the inner integral we get to treat x like a constant.

Let's expand that as a polynomial in y for the next integration,

The middle integration is



Expanding, that's

so our outer integral is

That one's easy enough that we can skip some steps; we'll integrate and plug in x=1 at the same time for our answer (the x=0 part doesn't contribute).


That's a surprise. You might want to check it.
Answer: 0
It’s not a function because the line folds over itself
The equation in the form of the given expression is (0)² + (1)² = 1
<h3>Trigonometry identity</h3>
According to some of the trigonometry identity
sin 0 = 0
cos 0 1
Given the expression below
sin^2 0+cos^2 0=1
This can also be expressed as:
(sin0)² + (cos0)² = 1
Substitute
(0)² + (1)² = 1
Hence the equation in the form of the given expression is (0)² + (1)² = 1
Learn more on trig identity here: brainly.com/question/20094605
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Answer:
20 degfress
Step-by-step explanation:

<h2>QUESTION</h2>

<h2>FIRST YOU HAVE TO DISTRIBUTE:</h2>

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<h2>SIDE NOTE: THE DISTRIBUTIVE FORMULA IS</h2>

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