Answer:
The depreciation expense for year 1 is $16,000
Explanation:
Depreciation: The depreciation was occurred due to tear and wear, obsolesce, time period, etc
Under the straight-line method, the depreciation should be charged with the same amount over the useful life.
The calculation is shown below:
= 
= 
= $16,000
The depreciation should be charged for $16,000 in year 1. Moreover, it is shown in the income statement in the debit side and in the cash flow statement also.
Answer:
Dr Cash (3,000)
Cr Deferred Revenue (4,000)
Cr Service Revenue (Clinic) (7,000)
Explanation:
Preparation of the appropriate journal entry
Since we were told that kayakers pay the sum of $3,000 at $150 each, by adding to the $4,000 that was already paid in advance on July 30 this means we have to record the transaction by Debiting Cash with the amount of (3,000); Crediting Deferred Revenue with the amount of (4,000) and Crediting Service Revenue (Clinic) with the amount of (7,000)
Note that the credit side of the transaction which is Deferred Revenue of 4,000 -Service Revenue (Clinic) of 7,000 will give us (3,000)
Journal entry
Dr Cash (3,000)
Cr Deferred Revenue (4,000)
Cr Service Revenue (Clinic) (7,000)
Answer:
Explanation:
1. Calculate the efficiency variance for variable overhead setup costs.
This will be calculated as:
= Standard Hours - Actual Hours) × Standard rate
= (15000/225 × 5.25 - 15000/250 × 5) × 38
= (350 - 300) × 38
= 50 × 38
= 1900 Favourable
2) Calculate the rate variance for variable overhead setup costs.
This will be:
= Standard rate- Actual rate) × Actual Hour
= (38-40) × (15000/250 × 5)
= -2 × 300
= -600 Unfavourable
3) Calculate the flexible-budget spending variance for variable overhead setup costs.
This will be the difference between the standard cost and the actual cost. This will be:
= (15000/225×5.25 ×38) - (15000/250×5 ×40)
= 13300 - 12000
= 1300 Favourable
4) Calculate the spending variance for fixed setup overhead costs.
what formular did you use.
This will be:
= Standard Cost - Actual Cost
= 9975-12000
= -2025 Unfavorable
Answer:
The correct answer is: The firm would present the order to the Options Clearing Corporation.
Explanation:
The Options Clearing Corporation or OCC works under the Securities and Exchange Commission (<em>SEC</em>) and acts as a guarantor and the issuer of options and futures contracts. The OCC is also in charge of clearing transactions for stock indexes, interest rate composites, and foreign currencies.
Answer:
Options Include:
1. Years before Year 1 only.
2. Year 1 only.
3. Year 1 and years before and following Year 1.
<em>4. Year 1 and following years only. is Correct</em>
Explanation:
Prior cost of service is acknowledged whenever a contract is changed to provide added benefits for services previously received by workers.
The amortization of the prior service expense must be acknowledged as an element of the retirement cost during the future service periods of all those workers whom are active on the date of the plan modification and are entitled to receive rewards under the Scheme.
<em>Therefore, prior service costs are expressed throughout the financial statements for Year 1 once the plan was modified and even in the years that follow when it is amortized.</em>
