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QveST [7]
3 years ago
5

What is the value of x in this figure?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Arte-miy333 [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

x=48°

Step-by-step explanation:

We two lines cross over each other, making four angles, the angles opposite each other are equal. They're called vertically opposite angles.

jeka57 [31]3 years ago
4 0
X=48 degrees
extra characters:hsjahjshajsjanns
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. The value of a lottery prize doubles
inna [77]

Answer: P(t) = $1000*2^t

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok, we know that in the week 1 the price is: p = $1000

After one week, the price doubles, so here we have: p = 2*$1000

After another week, the price doubles again, here the price is:

p = 2*(2*$1000) = $1000*2^2

Here we already can see the relation, for each week, we multiply the previous price by two, which will increase the exponent in the two by 1 unit.

Then, for week number t, the price will be:

P(t) = $1000*2^t

8 0
4 years ago
The likelihood that a patient with a heart attack dies of the attack is 0.04 (i.e., 4 of 100 die of the attack). Suppose we have
Sonbull [250]

The probability solved by binomial distribution that all will survive is 0.8154.

<h3>What is Binomial distribution? </h3>

When each trial has the same probability of achieving a given value, the number of trials or observations is summarized using the binomial distribution. The likelihood of observing a specific number of successful outcomes in a specific number of trials is determined by the binomial distribution.

Computation of probability of all survived people from heart attack;

A heart attack patient has a 0.04 percent chance of dying from the attack (i.e., 4 of 100 die of the attack).

What is the likelihood that each of the five patients who experience a heart attack will survive?

We'll refer to a victory in this scenario as a heart attack (p = 0.04). In other words, we are interested in the likelihood that none of our n=5 patients will die (0 successes).

Each attack has a chance of being fatal or not, with a probability of 4 percent for all patients, and each patient's result is independent.

Assume for the purposes of this example that the five individuals being examined are unrelated, of the same age, and free of any concomitant disorders.

By binomial distribution,

\begin{gathered}P(0 \text { successes })=\frac{5 !}{0 !(5-0) !} 0.04^{0}(1-0.04)^{5-0} \\P(0 \text { successes })=\frac{5 !}{5 !}(1)(0.96)^{5}=(1)(1)(0.8154)=0.8154\end{gathered}

Therefore, with a 4 % chance that anyone will die, there is an 81.54% chance that every patient will survive the onslaught. The outcomes in this example could be 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5 successes (fatalities).

To know more about Binomial Distribution, here

brainly.com/question/27794898

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
A 32-ounce package of a snack mix is 24 percent pretzels. How many ounces are pretzels?
shusha [124]

Answer:

the correct answer is choice D. if 24 precent of the snack mix is pretzels we simply need to multiply the total number of ounces by 0.24 7.68 ounces of the snack mix will be pretzels

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
2+2<br><br> show your work she said
stellarik [79]

Answer:4

Step-by-step explanation:1+1+1+1=4

8 0
3 years ago
What is the answer to this equation -14=d/15
expeople1 [14]

Answer:

d=-210

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 15 to both sides

-14*15 =-210

the 15 on the side with d cancels

Now you have d=-210

Hope this helps!

3 0
3 years ago
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