The answer is B because they never pass through each other therefore it has infinite possibilities
Answer:
one solution the have a point trust me a
Answer:
This is quite simple when you consider it. go to -4 on the x axis and find where it goes on the y which in this case is 1. so the output for y is 1
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
CD = 3.602019190339
Step-by-step explanation:
CD = DA - CA
DA = DB×Cos(29) = 18.7×cos(29) = 16.355388523507
BA = BA×cos(43) = 18.7×cos(43) = 13.676314220278
CA = BA÷tan(47) = 13.676314220278÷tan(47) = 12.753369333168
Then
CD = 16.355388523507 - 12.753369333168 = 3.602019190339
The sum of the first n odd numbers is n squared! So, the short answer is that the sum of the first 70 odd numbers is 70 squared, i.e. 4900.
Allow me to prove the result: odd numbers come in the form 2n-1, because 2n is always even, and the number immediately before an even number is always odd.
So, if we sum the first N odd numbers, we have
The first sum is the sum of all integers from 1 to N, which is N(N+1)/2. We want twice this sum, so we have
The second sum is simply the sum of N ones:
So, the final result is
which ends the proof.