Step-by-step explanation:
it is geometric
so we will use this equation:
a(n)=a1*(r)^(n-1)
and we have a(1)=75 , r=15/75=3/15=1/3
explicit formula: a(n)=75*(1/3)^(n-1)
hope this helps
Answer:
I'll go up to 5 on this table
Step-by-step explanation:
1. (1, 36)
2. (2, 48)
3. (3, 60)
4. (4, 72)
5. (5, 84)
- 31/6 , -26 square rooted, -5, - 5/6
Answer:
a) We conclude that the menager use the hypergeometric distribution.
b) We conclude that the menager use the binomial distribution.
Step-by-step explanation:
a) We know that in probability theory, the hypergeometric distribution is a discrete probability distribution that describes the probability of k successes in n draws, without replacement.
We conclude that the menager use the hypergeometric distribution.
b) We know that the binomial distribution describes the probability of k successes in n draws with replacement.
We conclude that the menager use the binomial distribution.
Well, we dont know because we cant see the barmodels
