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Liono4ka [1.6K]
2 years ago
10

Show work thanks please help me

Mathematics
1 answer:
astra-53 [7]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

∠ JKL = 32°

Step-by-step explanation:

Since KN bisects ∠ LKM , then

∠ LKN = ∠ NKM = 35°

Thus

∠ JKL = ∠ JKM - ∠ LKN - ∠ NKM

         = 102° - 35° - 35°

        = 102° - 70°

         = 32°

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Two fifths of one less than a number is less than three fifths of one more than that number .what numbers are in the solution se
Lelechka [254]

2/5(x - 1) < 3/5(1 + x)

To find the solution, we can use the distributive property to simplify.

2/5x - 2/5 < 3/5 + 3/5x

Multiply all terms by 5.

2x - 2 < 3 + 3x

Subtract 2x from both sides.

-2 < 3 + x

Subtract 3 from both sides.

-5 < x

<h3><u>The value of x is greater than the value of -5.</u></h3>
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2 years ago
Find an equation in slope-intercept form for the line with slope -3/4 and y-intercept=0? will give BRAINLIEST
nata0808 [166]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

See the solution process below:

Explanation:

The slope-intercept form of a linear equation is:  y =mx+b

Where  m is the slope and b

is the y-intercept value.

We are given the slope in the problem so we can substitute

−5/6 for  m  in the formula.

And,

(0,6)

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6

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b

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5

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6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

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3 years ago
Which expression is equivalent to 1/4y − 1/2
const2013 [10]
Y - 2 / 4

I don't really know how to explain it, but y - 2 / 4 is equivalent to 1/4y - 1/2
6 0
3 years ago
A box contains red marbles and green marbles. Sampling at random from the box five times with replacement, you have drawn a red
olasank [31]

Answer: The probability of drawing a red marble the sixth time is 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Here is the complete question:

A box contains 10 red marbles and 10 green marbles. Sampling at random from the box five times with replacement, you have drawn a red marble all five times. What is the probability of drawing a red marble the sixth time?

Explanation:

Since the sampling at random from the box containing the marbles is with replacement, that is, after picking a marble, it is replaced before picking another one, the probability of picking a red marble is the same for each sampling. Probability, P(A) is given by the ratio of the number of favourable outcome to the total number of favourable outcome.

From the question,

Number of favourable outcome = number of red marbles =10

Total number of favourable outcome = total number of marbles = 10+10= 20

Hence, probability of drawing a red marble P(R) = 10 ÷ 20

P(R) = 1/2

Since the probability of picking a red marble is the same for each sampling, the probability of picking a red marble the sixth time is 1/2

3 0
3 years ago
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