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3 years ago

When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range always has an infinite number of values. True or false

Mathematics

1 answer:

iragen [17]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Thus, the statement is False!

Step-by-step explanation:

When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range may not always have an infinite number of values.

For example:

Considering a function

$f(x) = 5$

Its domain is the set of all real numbers because it has an infinite number of possible domain values.

But, its range is a single number which is 5. Because the range of a constant function is a constant number.

Therefore, the statement ''When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range always has an infinite number of values'' is FALSE.

Thus, the statement is False!

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