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True [87]
3 years ago
10

What is Company XYZ's intrinsic equity value using the WACC as the discount rate and assuming the terminal value is based on the

EBITDA exit multiple
Business
1 answer:
const2013 [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$315,198

Explanation:

WACC = [ Equity / Total value ] * cost of equity + [ Debt / Total value ] * Cost of debt.

WACC = 11.5%

Exit multiple = Total cash outflow / Total cash inflow

Exit multiple = $120,000 / 36,000 = 3.3x

EBITDA of the company is $178,412.

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10. You are offered an annuity that will pay you $200,000 once every year, at the end of each year, for 25 years (i.e. the first
seraphim [82]

Answer:

PV= $2,749,494

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cash flow= $200,000

Number of periods= 25

Interest rate= 5.25%

<u>First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:</u>

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual cash flow

FV= {200,000* [(1.0525^25) - 1]} / 0.0525

FV= $9,881,102.14

<u>Now, the present value:</u>

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 9,881,102.14 / (1.0525^25)

PV= $2,749,494

6 0
3 years ago
Supply chain management refers to Question 13 options: A) how the firm compensates the employees who work on the firm's internal
Elden [556K]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

The decisions around which stages of production to handle internally and which to buy from others

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection Act allows the bankruptcy court to disallow a petition for a Chapter 7 b
Gekata [30.6K]

The Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection Act allows the bankruptcy court to disallow a petition for a Chapter 7 bankruptcy if the individual filing for bankruptcy earns an income that is  too high to meet the standards of the means test.

<h3><u>Explanation:</u></h3>

The main aim of The Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection Act is the prevention of abuse against the process that are involved in Bankruptcy. The process that are associated with the asset liquidation is being controlled by the Chapter 7 of Title 11 U.S bankruptcy code.

The liquidation of non exempt assets to pay creditors is carried out by a trustee. There will be a discharge of the debt that remains when there is an exhaust of proceeds. If the income of an individual is too high to meet the standards of mean test , then, according to his act  the bankruptcy court to disallows a petition for a Chapter 7 bankruptcy.

5 0
3 years ago
4.The inflation rate in the U.S. is 3%, while the inflation rate in Japan is 1.5%. The current exchange rate is $1 equal to 105
Nana76 [90]

Answer:

103.4709          

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Given that

U.S inflation rate = 3%

Japan inflation rate = 1.5%

Current exchange rate = 105

Now the new exchange rate for the yen is

= Current exchange rate × (1 + Japan inflation rate) ÷ (1 + U.S inflation rate)

= 105 × (1 + 1.5%) ÷ (1 + 3%)

= 105 × (1.015 ÷ 1.03)

= 105 × 0.985436893

= 103.4709          

5 0
3 years ago
Casey Nelson is a divisional manager for Pigeon Company. His annual pay raises are largely determined by his division’s return o
baherus [9]

Answer:

NPV: $180,285.49

IRR: 21.336%

simple rate of return: 72.13%

Explanation:

6,100,000 investment

contribution margin 3,000,000

fixed expense:       <u>     900,000  </u>

EBITA                         2,100,000

We will calculate the NPV without the depreciation, as the depreciation is the distribution of the investment cost over the project life.

If we include the depreciation we will be counting the investment amount twice. Entirely at Time 0  and then subtracting on each cash inflow.

We will calculate the NPV at 20% as is the company's discount rate. Even if the current division returns are in 24% as the company accepts project which yields 20%.

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 2,100,000

time 5 years

rate 20% = 20/100 = 0.2

2100000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.2)^{-5} }{0.2} = PV\\

PV $6,280,285.49

NPV = PV of cash inflow - investment

6,280,285.49 - 6,100,000 = 180,285.49

<u>the IRR:</u>

The internal rate of return is the rate at which the NPV of a priject is zero.

We calculate this using excel formula IRR

or a financial calculator

it could also be done with trial and error using the PV tables.

<u>I will explain you in Excel</u>

FIrst, you write the inflow and outflow per year:

-6,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

then we write on another cell:

=IRR(

then, select the cells

and press enter

21.336%

<u>the simple rate of return:</u>

(total return - investment) / investment

(2,100,000 x 5 - 6,100,000) / 6,100,000 =

4,400,000 / 6,100,000 = 0.721311475 = 72.13%

7 0
3 years ago
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