Answer:
Coupon (R) = 6.8% x 10,000 = $680
Face value (FV) = $10,000
Number of times coupon is paid in a year (m) = 2
No of years to maturity = 8 years
Yield to maturity (Kd) = 8% = 0.08
Po = R/2(1- (1 + r/m)-nm) + FV/ (1+r/m)n
m
r/m
Po = 680/2(1-(1+0.08/2)-8x2) + 10,000/(1 + 0.08/2
)8x2
0.08/2
Po = 340(1 - (1 + 0.04)-16) + 10,000/(1 + 0.04)16
0.04
Po = 340(1-0.5339) + 10,000/1.8730
0.04
Po = 3,961.85 + 5,339.03
Po = $9,300.88
Explanation:
The current market price of a bond is a function of the present value of semi-annual coupon and present value of the face value. The present value of semi-annual coupon is obtained by multiplying the coupon by the present value of annuity factor at 8% for 8 years. The present value of face value is obtained by discounting the face value at the discount factor for 8 years. The addition of the two gives the present value of the bond. All these explanations have been captured by the formula.
Answer: Equity funds
Explanation: This type of mutual fund invest in stocks,the risk of losing your investment is high in this type of mutual fund,these funds are usually expected to grow faster than fixed income funds and money market funds.
There are different types of Equity funds which includes mid-income stocks,value stocks,high-cap stocks,growth stocks and income stocks.
The potential for Dollar appreciation is high with these types of stocks with predictable source of dividend.
Answer:
$142,524
Explanation:
The computation of the total cost assigned to the ending work in process
inventory is shown below:
As we know that
Total cost = Material + Labor
where,
Material = 21,400 units × 100% × $3.60 = $77,040
And,
Labor = 21,400 units × 60% × $5.10 = 65,484
So, the total cost is $142,524
We simply added material and the labor cost according to their completion percentage and its cost per equivalent units
To record the dividend declaration
Ordinary Share Capital $90000
Dividend Payable $90000
to record payment
Dividend Payable $90000
Cash $90000
The amount is derived from the shares issued and outstanding so, the 190000 issued is deducted by 10000 treasury shares because treasury shares are reacquired by the company so it is not an outstanding share, then just multiply the answer with the dividend per share to arrive at $90000
190000-10000shares * $.50 =$90000
Since you provide no relevant number,
In order to find out the optimal Asset allocation, you should find out which investment opportunities that Provide the highest return with the lowest standard deviation in the risk department
hope this helps
