Answer: D. All of these choices are correct.
Explanation:
Lean manufacturing occurs when an organisation produces goods using as little resources as they can, while still producing enough goods at the correct quality.
This includes all options (a-c) for the following reasons:
a. Supplier partnering - it is important to have a smooth operations in terms of the organisation's relationships with their partners. This leads to an efficient supply management because this leads to better control over the flow of material and production planning, especially when the aim is to use minimal resourses.
b. Employee involvement - in lean manufacturing, less human effort is required. However high quality goods at the right quanity still needs to be produced.Therefore it is important for the little employees needed, to work cohesively to produce these goods effectively and efficiently.
c. Product orientated production layout - Also known as assembly line, this is when employees perfom minimal functions at a time, to produce large quantities of a few types of products that are different.
So for lean manufacturing to be implemented and operate effectively, it requires all these options.
Answer:
The following balances have been worked out from the information given in question;
Explanation:
No. of Common stocks issued $200,000/22 9,091
Paid in capital-Common Stocks 9,091*(22-1) $90,909
No. of Treasury Stock 3,000
Treasury stock 3,000*20 $60,000
EPS =$147,750/(9,091 -3,000) $24
Retained Earnings ($155,000+$147,750-$49,250) $253,500
Answer:
over 1 year
Explanation:
IRS known as Internal Revenue Service interpret internal revenue code and they control treasure regulation. They also have code that control disposition of asset which is the process of selling out of an asset
It should be noted that Under IRS regulations, a gain or loss upon current disposition of an asset is first considered to be long term if the asset has been held for over 1 year.
Answer: The answer is $1,092,865.5426
To the nearest whole dollar, we have:
$1,092,866
Explanation: from the question above, we will be calculating the present value of a cashflow of $93,000 over a period of 20 years, at a rate of 5.76%.
We will be performing a discounting operation.
Refer to the attached files below to see the calculations and how we arrived at the answer above.