Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
given that the Chocolate House specializes in hand-dipped chocolates for special occasions. Three employees do all of the product packaging
Clerk I II III total
Pack 0.33 0.23 0.44 1
Defective 0.02 0.025 0.015
Pack&def 0.0066 0.00575 0.0066 0.01895
a) probability that a randomly selected box of chocolates was packed by Clerk 2 and does not contain any defective chocolate
= P(II clerk) -P(II clerk and defective) = 
b) the probability that a randomly selected box contains defective chocolate=P(I and def)+P(ii and def)+P(iiiand def)
=0.01895
c) Suppose a randomly selected box of chocolates is defective. The probability that it was packaged by Clerk 3
=P(clerk 3 and def)/P(defective)
=
Answer:
x = -6,3,15,-12; y = 11,5,-3,15
Step-by-step explanation:
Domain is the x value, so plugged in the x values into the equation and got the y values or range.
80p = 80 cents
£1.50 = $1.50.
(changing the signs, that's it)
So if a small bottle is half the size of a large bottle, and is 80 cents.
Amir buys 4 bottles, so 0.80 * 4 = 320 = $3.20.
Now 4 small bottles is the same as 2 large ones, so if he bought 2 large bottles: $1.50 * 2 = $3.00.
$3.20 - $3.00 = 0.20 cents.
Amir would've saved 0.20
P.S. What is "p" in European money
Answer:
Hello! Your answer is less than. (<)
Step-by-step explanation:
I took the test and got it right, proof below!!!!
Hope this helps!! so so sorry if im late! <3
Answer: 40:27
Step-by-step explanation: 80:54 / 2:2 = 40:27
