If 3 candy bars cost $2.70 at the gas station mart. What is the cost for 1 candy bar?

Lana71 [14]

Answer:

a. 0.93 b. 0.06 c. 0.05

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability is commonly known as the chance of success of a particular event. The probability of failure of the event can also be estimated.

(a) Probability of not having type 2 defect is: $P(A_{2}^{'})$ $= 1 - P(A_{2})$ = 1 - 0.07 = 0.93

(b) Probability of having type 1 and 2 defects is: $P(A_{1} n A_{2}) = P(A_{1}) + P(A_{2}) - P(A_{1}U A_{2}) = 0.12 + 0.07 - 0.13 = 0.06$

(c) probability pf having both type 1 and type 2 defects but not type 3 defect is:

$P(A_{1} + A_{2} + A^{'} _{3}) = P(A_{1} n A_{2}) - P(A_{1} n A_{2} n A_{3}) = 0.06 - 0.01 = 0.05$

3 0

3 years ago

oksian1 [2.3K]

A. Obtuse and you can remember this because obtuse means not sharp, which is like a right angle.

3 0

3 years ago

Alik [6]

Answer:

BD = 12.1 (nearest tenth)

Step-by-step explanation:

∆ABC is an isosceles triangle, since it has two equal sides, AB and BC. Also, this means that <BAD and <BCD = 60° each.

BD divides ∆ABC into two equal parts.

Apply trigonometric ratio to find BD.

Reference angle = <BAD = 60°

Adjacent = AD = 7

Opposite = BD

Thus, we would have:

tan 60 = opp/adj

Tan 60 = BD/7

7*Tan 60 = BD

12.1 = BD

BD = 12.1 (nearest tenth)

8 0

3 years ago

densk [106]

Answer:
3=13
4=31
Your welcome☺️
And don’t click on the links just report them bc it’s nothing but a hack

6 0

3 years ago

Nonamiya [84]

Answer:

subtract 0.4

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago