Now what you want to do is 21 + (-3). Since this is the same as saying 21 - 3, the answer is 18. Therefore, the answer is 18°F.
Here is how to solve it with long division and synthetic division.
Answer:
56
Step-by-step explanation:
Strange question to me
Answer:
A. yes, the data represents a function because u have no repeating x values. A function cannot have repeating x values...they can have repeating y values, just not the x ones
Step-by-step explanation:
B. table : (8,8)(12,12)(14,16)(16,16)
look at ur points...when x = 8, y = 8...so the table, when x = 8 has a
value of 8
relation : f(x) = 8x - 5....when x = 8
f(8) = 8(8) - 5
f(8) = 64 - 5
f(8) = 59....and the relation has a value of 59
Therefore, the relation has a greater value when x = 8 <==
C. f(x) = 8x - 5...when f(x) = 19
19 = 8x - 5
19 + 5 = 8x
24 = 8x
24/8 = x
3 = x <==
To solve this problem, we make use of the Binomial
Probability equation which is mathematically expressed as:
P = [n! / r! (n – r)!] p^r * q^(n – r)
where,
n = the total number of gadgets = 4
r = number of samples = 1 and 2 (since not more than 2)
p = probability of success of getting a defective gadget
q = probability of failure = 1 – p
Calculating for p:
p = 5 / 15 = 0.33
So,
q = 1 – 0.33 = 0.67
Calculating for P when r = 1:
P (r = 1) = [4! / 1! 3!] 0.33^1 * 0.67^3
P (r = 1) = 0.3970
Calculating for P when r = 2:
P (r = 2) = [4! / 2! 2!] 0.33^2 * 0.67^2
P (r = 2) = 0.2933
Therefore the total probability of not getting more than
2 defective gadgets is:
P = 0.3970 + 0.2933
P = 0.6903
Hence there is a 0.6903 chance or 69.03% probability of
not getting more than 2 defective gadgets.
