Well we can just use F=ma. The force is 10N, the mass is 50 kg, solve for a. Well since we kg and N, no conversion is necessary. So just plugging in the numbers, we get
10N = 50 kg · a

A newton is just 

The s^2 and 50 kg you multiply

The kg's cancel and 10/50 is 1/5

So the acceleration is 1/5 m/s^2
Answer:
5 sq. root 3
Explanation:
theta= 60°
=> u sin theta = 10 × sin 60
= 10× sq. root 3/2
= 5 sq. root 3
Daniddmelo says it right there, don't know why he got reported.
The potential energy (PE) is mass x height x gravity. So it would be 25 kg x 4 m x 9.8 = 980 joules. The child starts out with 980 joules of potential energy. The kinetic energy (KE) is (1/2) x mass x velocity squared. KE = (1/2) x 25 kg x 5 m/s2 = 312.5 joules. So he ends with 312.5 joules of kinetic energy. The Energy lost to friction = PE - KE. 980- 312.5 = 667.5 joules of energy lost to friction.
Please don't just copy and paste, and thank you Dan cause you practically did it I just... elaborated more? I dunno.
Answer:
It will be cut in half
Explanation:
The diffraction of a slit is given by the formula
a sin θ = m where
a = width of the slit,
λ = wavelength and
m = integer that determines the order of diffraction.
Next we divide both sides by a, we have
sin θ = m λ / a
Also, recall that
a’ = 2 a
Then we substitute in the previous equation
2asin θ' = m λ, if divide by 2a, we have
sin θ' = (m λ / 2a).
Now again, from the first equation, we said that sin θ = m λ / a, so we substitute
sin θ ’= sin θ / 2
Then we use trigonometry to find the width, we say
tan θ = y / L
Since the angle is small, we then have
tan θ = sin θ / cos θ
tan θ = sin θ, this then means that
sin θ = y / L
we will then substitute
y’ / L = y/L 1/2
y' = y / 2
this means that when the slit width is doubled the pattern width will then be halved